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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into three parts — Part A (Chemistry, 25 Marks), Part B (Biology, 30 Marks) and Part C (Physics, 25 Marks).
2. Each part is further divided into four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (including objective-type and Assertion–Reason questions), Section 2 — Short Answer, Section 3 — Long Answer, and Section 4 — Case/Source-based integrated question.
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions across the paper. Attempt only one option where a choice is given.
4. Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
5. Write balanced chemical equations wherever applicable.
6. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
PART A — CHEMISTRY (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q8
Q1. Define an "exothermic reaction", with one example. 1
Q2. Name the salt formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide. 1
Q3. State the colour change observed when phenolphthalein indicator is added to a basic solution. 1
Q4. Name the metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature. 1
Q5. Name the process of converting an alcohol into a carboxylic acid. 1
Q6. Identify the type of reaction: 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂. 1
Q7. Assertion (A): Copper vessels get a green coating when exposed to moist air for long periods.
Reason (R): Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to form basic copper carbonate on its surface. 1
Reason (R): Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to form basic copper carbonate on its surface. 1
Q8. Assertion (A): Non-metals generally do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Reason (R): Non-metals cannot easily lose electrons to form positive ions. 1
Reason (R): Non-metals cannot easily lose electrons to form positive ions. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q9 to Q12
Q9. Write the equation for the reaction of iron with oxygen to form rust, and state the essential conditions for rusting to occur. 2
Q10. What is meant by the term "ore"? Distinguish between an ore and a mineral. 2
Q11. Give two uses of carbon compounds in daily life. 2
— OR —
State any two differences between metals and non-metals based on their physical properties. 2
Q12. What happens when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate? Write the balanced chemical equation. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q13
Q13. (a) Explain the thermite reaction, and write its balanced chemical equation. State one use of this reaction. (3)
(b) Why can metals like sodium and potassium not be obtained by heating their ores with carbon? (2) 5
(b) Why can metals like sodium and potassium not be obtained by heating their ores with carbon? (2) 5
— OR —
(a) What is meant by "denaturation" of alcohol, and why is it done? (2)
(b) With the help of balanced equations, describe two chemical properties of ethanoic acid that you would test to identify it in a laboratory. (3)
(b) With the help of balanced equations, describe two chemical properties of ethanoic acid that you would test to identify it in a laboratory. (3)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q14
Q14. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
The extraction and processing of metals from their ores, though essential for modern industry, has significant environmental consequences. Mining operations disturb large areas of land, and the processes used to extract metals, such as roasting and smelting, release harmful gases like sulphur dioxide into the atmosphere, contributing to air pollution and acid rain. Recycling metals, such as scrap iron and aluminium cans, reduces the need for fresh mining and significantly lowers the energy consumption and pollution associated with metal extraction, making it an important practice for sustainable development.
14.1 Name one harmful gas released during the roasting/smelting of ores, according to the passage. (1)
14.2 What environmental problem can this gas contribute to? (1)
14.3 Explain, based on the passage, why recycling metals is considered environmentally beneficial. (2)
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PART B — BIOLOGY (30 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q15 to Q22
Q15. Name the enzyme secreted by the stomach that breaks down proteins. 1
Q16. Define the term "receptor" in the context of the nervous system. 1
Q17. Name the hormone whose deficiency in children causes stunted growth (dwarfism). 1
Q18. What is meant by "external fertilisation"? Give one example of an organism showing this. 1
Q19. In a cross between RRYY and rryy pea plants, what will be the phenotype of the F1 generation? 1
Q20. Name one greenhouse gas responsible for global warming. 1
Q21. Assertion (A): The movement of a sunflower plant's head to follow the sun through the day is an example of a tropic movement.
Reason (R): Tropic movements are directional movements that occur in response to an external stimulus, and involve growth of the plant part. 1
Reason (R): Tropic movements are directional movements that occur in response to an external stimulus, and involve growth of the plant part. 1
Q22. Assertion (A): A father with blood group AB cannot have a child with blood group O.
Reason (R): An AB blood group individual carries both A and B alleles, and does not carry the recessive O allele. 1
Reason (R): An AB blood group individual carries both A and B alleles, and does not carry the recessive O allele. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q23 to Q26
Q23. Explain the process of clotting of blood at the site of a wound. 2
Q24. Differentiate between "unisexual" and "bisexual" flowers, giving one example of each. 2
— OR —
Why is the small intestine considered the site of "complete digestion"? 2
Q25. State the functions of the fallopian tube in the human female reproductive system. 2
Q26. State the significance of DNA copying during reproduction, and explain why variations can still arise despite this copying being generally accurate. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks each) — Q27 to Q28
Q27. (a) With a labelled diagram, explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba. (3)
(b) How is nutrition in Amoeba different from nutrition in human beings? (2) 5
(b) How is nutrition in Amoeba different from nutrition in human beings? (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the pathway of blood flow through the human heart in one complete cardiac cycle. (3)
(b) Why do the walls of the ventricles have thicker muscles than the walls of the atria? (2)
(b) Why do the walls of the ventricles have thicker muscles than the walls of the atria? (2)
Q28. (a) Explain the role of the endocrine system in maintaining homeostasis, giving one example of a hormone-controlled feedback mechanism. (3)
(b) Name the endocrine gland associated with the regulation of metabolism, and name the hormone it secretes. (2) 5
(b) Name the endocrine gland associated with the regulation of metabolism, and name the hormone it secretes. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the structure and function of the human female reproductive system, with a labelled diagram. (3)
(b) What is the average duration of a human menstrual cycle? (2)
(b) What is the average duration of a human menstrual cycle? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q29
Q29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
The ozone layer, present in the upper atmosphere, absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, protecting life on Earth from its damaging effects, which include skin cancer and damage to crops. However, certain man-made chemicals, particularly chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerants and aerosol sprays, have been found to significantly deplete the ozone layer when released into the atmosphere. International agreements, such as the Montreal Protocol, have led to a substantial reduction in the use of ozone-depleting substances, and scientific studies indicate that the ozone layer is now gradually recovering.
29.1 What important function does the ozone layer perform, according to the passage? (1)
29.2 Name the chemicals identified in the passage as responsible for depleting the ozone layer. (1)
29.3 What steps, mentioned in the passage, have helped in the recovery of the ozone layer? (2)
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PART C — PHYSICS (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q30 to Q37
Q30. State the SI unit of the power of a lens. 1
Q31. Name the mirror that has a wider field of view than a plane mirror of the same size. 1
Q32. Name the phenomenon due to which the sun appears to rise a few minutes before it actually rises above the horizon. 1
Q33. State the relation between 1 kilowatt-hour and joule. 1
Q34. Calculate the equivalent resistance of two resistors of 6 Ω each connected in parallel. 1
Q35. Name the scientist who discovered that an electric current produces a magnetic field. 1
Q36. Assertion (A): The refractive index of diamond is much higher than that of water.
Reason (R): A higher refractive index indicates greater bending of light as it passes from air into that medium. 1
Reason (R): A higher refractive index indicates greater bending of light as it passes from air into that medium. 1
Q37. Assertion (A): The heating effect of current is used in electric heaters and geysers.
Reason (R): When current flows through a conductor with resistance, electrical energy is converted into heat energy. 1
Reason (R): When current flows through a conductor with resistance, electrical energy is converted into heat energy. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q38 to Q41
Q38. What is meant by the "power of accommodation" of the human eye? 2
Q39. An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. Without detailed calculation, state whether the image will be real or virtual, and explain why. 2
— OR —
Explain why the focal length of a convex mirror is taken as positive according to the standard sign convention used for spherical mirrors. 2
Q40. Calculate the total resistance of a circuit having a 5 Ω resistor connected in series with a parallel combination of two 4 Ω resistors. 2
Q41. State two applications of an electromagnet in daily life (other than a motor or generator). 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q42
Q42. (a) With a labelled ray diagram, describe the formation of the image of a distant object by a concave mirror. (3)
(b) The magnification produced by a concave mirror is −2 for an object placed 30 cm from the mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror. (2) 5
(b) The magnification produced by a concave mirror is −2 for an object placed 30 cm from the mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) State Ohm's law, and describe an experimental setup used to verify it. (3)
(b) Why does the resistance of an electric bulb's filament increase when it is switched on and glowing, compared to when it is cold? (2)
(b) Why does the resistance of an electric bulb's filament increase when it is switched on and glowing, compared to when it is cold? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q43
Q43. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
An electric bell is a common device that uses the principle of electromagnetism to produce sound. When the circuit is switched on, current flows through a coil wound around a soft iron core, magnetising it and attracting a nearby iron strip (the armature), which causes a hammer to strike a gong and produce a sound. As the armature moves, it breaks contact with a screw, interrupting the current flow, which demagnetises the core and allows the armature to spring back, re-establishing contact. This cycle repeats rapidly, causing the bell to ring continuously as long as the circuit remains switched on.
43.1 What component in the electric bell acts as the electromagnet? (1)
43.2 Why does the armature spring back after being attracted towards the electromagnet? (1)
43.3 Explain, based on the passage, why the bell rings continuously rather than striking just once. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Competency Analysis
1. Part-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
| Part | Section 1 (VSA + AR) | Section 2 (SA) | Section 3 (LA) | Section 4 (Case-based) | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A — Chemistry | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| B — Biology | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 2 × 5 = 10 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 30 |
| C — Physics | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| Total | 24 | 24 | 20 | 12 | 80 |
2. Unit-wise Weightage (as per given specification)
| Unit | Topic Focus | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Unit I — Chemical Substances | Chemical reactions/equations, acids/bases/salts, metals & non-metals, carbon compounds | 25 |
| Unit II — World of Living | Life processes, control & coordination, reproduction, heredity | 25 |
| Unit V — Natural Resources | Ecosystems, energy flow, waste management | 5 |
| Unit III — Natural Phenomena | Reflection/refraction, human eye and its defects | 12 |
| Unit IV — Effects of Current | Ohm's law, resistance, magnetic effects (excluding motor/generator/EMI) | 13 |
| Total | 80 |
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Approx. Marks | Approx. % |
|---|---|---|
| Knowledge & Understanding (state, define, list, describe, identify) | 40 | 50% |
| Application (calculate, illustrate, show, explain, distinguish) | 24 | 30% |
| Analyse, Evaluate & Create (interpret, analyse, compare, contrast, examine) | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Part A: Internal choice provided in Q12 (SA) and Q13 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
Part B: Internal choice provided in Q24 (SA), Q27 (LA) and Q28 (LA) — 3 of 7 non-VSA questions (~43%, within the "approximately one-third" range for the paper overall).
Part C: Internal choice provided in Q39 (SA) and Q42 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
5. Exclusions Confirmed
✔ No questions from Periodic Classification of Elements.
✔ No questions from Evolution (speciation, fossils) — only Heredity concepts included.
✔ No questions on Electric Motor, Electromagnetic Induction, or Electric Generator.
✔ No content drawn from "Do You Know" / informational boxes in NCERT textbooks.
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — CHEMISTRY
Q1. A reaction that releases heat to the surroundings is exothermic; e.g., combustion of fuels.
Q2. Sodium chloride (NaCl).
Q3. Colourless to pink.
Q4. Mercury.
Q5. Oxidation.
Q6. Decomposition reaction.
Q7. (A) Q8. (A)
Q9. 4Fe + 3O₂ + xH₂O → 2Fe₂O₃·xH₂O (rust); conditions: presence of both air (oxygen) and moisture (water) are needed.
Q10. An ore is a mineral from which a metal can be extracted profitably; a mineral is a naturally occurring substance with a definite chemical composition, containing a metal — an ore is thus a mineral that is economically viable for extraction.
Q11. Carbon compounds are used as fuels (LPG, petrol) and in making plastics/synthetic fibres (any two correct uses). OR: Metals are lustrous, malleable and good conductors of heat/electricity; non-metals are generally dull, brittle (if solid) and poor conductors.
Q12. CH₃COOH + NaHCO₃ → CH₃COONa + H₂O + CO₂; brisk effervescence of CO₂ gas is observed.
Q13. (a) Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → 2Fe + Al₂O₃ + heat; used for welding railway tracks. (b) Sodium and potassium are highly reactive and would react explosively/violently with carbon or displace it, so they are extracted by electrolytic reduction instead. OR: Denaturation makes ethanol unfit for drinking (by adding substances like methanol/pyridine) to prevent misuse while still allowing industrial use. Tests: reaction with sodium bicarbonate (brisk effervescence) and esterification test with an alcohol producing a sweet smell.
Q14. (i) Sulphur dioxide. (ii) Air pollution and acid rain. (iii) Recycling reduces the need for fresh mining and lowers the energy consumption and pollution associated with extracting new metal from ore.
PART B — BIOLOGY
Q15. Pepsin.
Q16. A receptor is a specialised cell/structure that detects a specific stimulus and generates a nerve impulse in response.
Q17. Growth hormone.
Q18. Fusion of male and female gametes occurring outside the body of the organism, usually in water; e.g., frogs/fish.
Q19. Round, yellow (both dominant traits).
Q20. Carbon dioxide (or methane — any correct example).
Q21. (A) Q22. (A)
Q23. Platelets in the blood release clotting factors at the wound site, converting a soluble protein (fibrinogen) into insoluble fibrin threads, which trap blood cells and form a clot, sealing the wound and preventing further blood loss.
Q24. Unisexual flowers contain either male (stamens) or female (pistil) parts only, e.g., papaya; bisexual flowers contain both male and female parts in the same flower, e.g., hibiscus. OR: The small intestine receives secretions from the liver (bile) and pancreas, and its walls secrete intestinal juice, together completing the digestion of all food components (carbohydrates, proteins, fats).
Q25. The fallopian tube (oviduct) is the site of fertilisation, where the egg meets the sperm, and it also transports the egg/embryo from the ovary towards the uterus.
Q26. DNA copying ensures that the basic body design/traits are passed on to the next generation, maintaining the species' characteristics; however, since DNA copying is not always perfectly accurate, small errors (mutations) can occur, introducing variation.
Q27. Amoeba engulfs food using temporary projections called pseudopodia, forming a food vacuole where digestion occurs. OR: Diagram tracing blood flow: body → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → body; ventricles have thicker walls since they must pump blood over longer distances (to lungs/whole body) requiring more force.
Q28. Hormones regulate body functions via feedback mechanisms — e.g., insulin/glucagon regulate blood sugar levels, maintaining a stable internal environment. Thyroid gland — secretes thyroxine, which regulates metabolism. OR: Diagram showing ovary, fallopian tube, uterus, cervix, vagina; average menstrual cycle duration is about 28 days.
Q29. (i) It absorbs most harmful UV radiation from the sun, protecting life on Earth. (ii) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). (iii) International agreements like the Montreal Protocol led to a significant reduction in the use of ozone-depleting substances.
PART C — PHYSICS
Q30. Dioptre (D).
Q31. Convex mirror.
Q32. Atmospheric refraction (advance sunrise/delayed sunset effect).
Q33. 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
Q34. Equivalent resistance = (6×6)/(6+6) = 3 Ω.
Q35. Hans Christian Oersted.
Q36. (A) Q37. (A)
Q38. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length (by changing curvature via the ciliary muscles) to focus on objects at varying distances is called the power of accommodation.
Q39. Since the object (25 cm) is beyond the focal length (15 cm) but is between F and C, the image formed will be real (and magnified). OR: The focus of a convex mirror lies behind the mirror (virtual side), and by the sign convention, distances measured in this direction are taken as positive.
Q40. Parallel combination = (4×4)/(4+4) = 2 Ω; total = 5 + 2 = 7 Ω.
Q41. Used in electric bells; used in cranes for lifting heavy iron/steel scrap (any two correct applications, excluding motor/generator).
Q42. (a) Parallel rays from a distant object converge at the focus, forming a highly diminished, real, inverted image at F. (b) m = −v/u = −2, so v = 2u = 2(−30) = −60 cm; using mirror formula 1/f = 1/v + 1/u: 1/f = 1/(−60) + 1/(−30) = −3/60 = −1/20, so f = −20 cm. OR: Standard Ohm's law circuit description (battery, key, ammeter, resistor, rheostat, voltmeter); resistance increases with rising temperature of the filament as it glows (heating effect increases resistivity of the metal).
Q43. (i) The soft iron core, with the coil wound around it. (ii) Once contact with the screw breaks, current stops flowing, the core loses its magnetism, and the armature's natural elasticity pulls it back. (iii) The repeated make-and-break of contact continuously magnetises and demagnetises the core, causing the armature to vibrate back and forth rapidly, striking the gong repeatedly and producing a continuous ringing sound.
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