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Saturday, August 15, 2026

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 5 - 2026-27

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 5 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 5  (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________ Roll No.: __________ Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts, corresponding to the four disciplines of Social Science — Part A: History (20 Marks), Part B: Geography (20 Marks), Part C: Political Science (20 Marks), and Part D: Economics (20 Marks).

2. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/objective, including one Assertion–Reason question), Section 2 — Short Answer, and Section 3 — Long Answer, with an internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words, and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Attempt all parts; marks for each question are indicated against it.

PART A — HISTORY  (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Name the Act passed by the British in 1919 that gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities. 1
Q2. Which industry saw the earliest large-scale factories set up in India during the colonial period, especially in Bombay? 1
Q3. Name the system in which merchants supplied raw materials to rural households, who produced goods from home, common before large-scale factories emerged in Europe. 1
Q4. Who was Rammohan Roy, and with which social/religious reform movement is he associated? 1
Q5. Assertion (A): The Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919 deeply shocked and angered Indians.
Reason (R): General Dyer ordered troops to open fire on an unarmed crowd gathered peacefully at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer  (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Describe any three ways in which the First World War helped in creating conditions for a mass nationalist movement in India. 3
Q7. Explain the meaning of "de-industrialisation", and describe its effect on Indian handicraft producers during colonial rule. 3
Q8. Explain any three ways in which the printing press contributed to the growth of a "reading public" in 19th-century India. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer  (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. Discuss the various forms of protest, boycott and demonstration adopted by different social groups during the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930–34. 6
— OR —
Explain the role of the Khilafat issue in bringing Hindus and Muslims together during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY  (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Name the type of farming in which a single crop is grown over a large area using modern inputs and machinery. 1
Q11. Name the two leading coffee-producing states in India. 1
Q12. Name the scheme launched by the Government of India for the conservation of the tiger population. 1
Q13. What is "biogas"? Name one raw material used to produce it. 1
Q14. Assertion (A): Rice is a Kharif crop that requires high temperature and high humidity for growth.
Reason (R): Rice cultivation is mainly concentrated in areas of high rainfall or where irrigation facilities are well developed. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer  (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Explain any three methods of soil conservation practised in India. 3
Q16. Distinguish between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy, giving two examples of each. 3
Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following: (a) A wildlife sanctuary/national park, (b) A major fertiliser plant, (c) An important seaport on the western coast. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer  (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. Explain any three problems associated with the availability and distribution of water resources in India, and suggest measures for their conservation. 6
— OR —
Discuss the significance of manufacturing industries in the economic development of India, mentioning any three of their contributions.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE  (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Name the country that reorganised its states largely on a linguistic basis, as a form of power sharing. 1
Q20. What is the difference between "horizontal" and "vertical" distribution of power? 1
Q21. Define "civil society organisations", and give one example. 1
Q22. What were the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments related to, in the context of local government? 1
Q23. Assertion (A): Belgium's constitution was amended to allow for a more decentralised, power-sharing system among its different linguistic communities.
Reason (R): Belgium has significant regional differences between Dutch-speaking, French-speaking and German-speaking populations. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer  (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain any three provisions related to local self-government (Panchayati Raj) introduced in India through constitutional amendments. 3
Q25. State any three sources of regional aspirations that can lead to demands for autonomy within a federal country. 3
Q26. Explain any three factors that determine whether a social difference (such as caste or religion) becomes politically significant. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer  (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. Discuss the various ways in which power is shared among different social groups in a democracy, with reference to gender, religion and caste. 6
— OR —
Explain the process and importance of decentralisation of power in India, with reference to the working of local self-government institutions.
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PART D — ECONOMICS  (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Define "sustainable development". 1
Q29. What are "public sector" enterprises? Give one example. 1
Q30. What is meant by "interest rate" on a loan? 1
Q31. Name any one Indian company that has become a multinational corporation by expanding operations to other countries. 1
Q32. Assertion (A): Investment by MNCs can benefit the local economy of the host country.
Reason (R): MNCs often bring new technology and create additional employment opportunities in the countries where they invest. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer  (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain any three criteria that could be used to compare the development of different states or countries. 3
Q34. State any three examples of tertiary sector activities that have grown rapidly in India in recent decades. 3
Q35. Explain any three ways in which the government protects the rights of borrowers and depositors in the formal banking sector. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer  (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. Explain the concepts of "underemployment" and "disguised unemployment", using examples from the agricultural sector in India. 6
— OR —
Discuss the role of measures such as the Consumer Protection Act in protecting consumer rights in India, and explain the significance of labels/logos like ISI and AGMARK on products.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
PartSection 1 (VSA + AR)Section 2 (SA)Section 3 (LA)Total
A — History5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
B — Geography5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
C — Political Science5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
D — Economics5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
Total20362480
2. Chapter Coverage
SubjectChapters Covered
HistoryNationalism in India, The Making of a Global World, The Age of Industrialisation, Print Culture and the Modern World
GeographyResources and Development, Forest and Wildlife Resources, Water Resources, Agriculture, Minerals and Energy Resources
Political SciencePower Sharing, Federalism, Political Parties, Challenges to Democracy, Democracy and Accountability
EconomicsDevelopment, Sectors of the Indian Economy, Money and Credit, Globalisation and the Indian Economy, Consumer Rights
3. Question Typology
TypeMarks per QuestionTotal QuestionsTotal Marks
Very Short Answer (MCQ/Objective/Assertion–Reason)12020
Short Answer31236
Long Answer (with internal choice)6424
Total3680
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. The Rowlatt Act.
Q2. The cotton textile industry.
Q3. The putting-out system.
Q4. Rammohan Roy was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj, a key figure in the social and religious reform movements of 19th-century India, advocating against practices like sati.
Q5. (A)
Q6. The war led to a huge rise in defence expenditure financed by war loans/increased taxes, causing price rises and hardship among common people; forced recruitment of Indian soldiers created resentment; and expectations of political concessions after the war, which were not adequately fulfilled, fuelled nationalist sentiment.
Q7. De-industrialisation refers to the decline of traditional industries/handicrafts due to competition from cheap machine-made imports and colonial trade policies; Indian handicraft producers lost their markets, faced falling incomes, and many were forced to seek alternative occupations, including agricultural labour.
Q8. The printing press made books/newspapers cheaper and more widely available, enabled serialised novels and periodicals reaching a larger audience, and encouraged the growth of vernacular literature, expanding the circle of readers beyond the elite.
Q9. Forms of protest included: the Salt March and breaking of salt laws; boycott of foreign cloth and liquor shops; peasants refusing to pay revenue; and women actively participating in protests and picketing, which was historically significant. OR: The Khilafat issue, concerning the treatment of the Ottoman Caliph after WWI, was taken up by Muslim leaders and supported by Gandhi, creating common ground for joint Hindu-Muslim participation in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. Commercial farming (or plantation agriculture).
Q11. Karnataka and Kerala.
Q12. Project Tiger.
Q13. Biogas is a fuel produced from the decomposition of organic waste (e.g., cattle dung/"gobar gas") in the absence of oxygen, used as a clean source of energy for cooking and lighting.
Q14. (A)
Q15. Methods include: contour ploughing, terrace farming on slopes, and strip cropping/planting shelter belts to reduce wind erosion.
Q16. Conventional sources are exhaustible/non-renewable and have been used for a long time, e.g., coal and petroleum; non-conventional sources are generally renewable and cause less pollution, e.g., solar energy and wind energy.
Q17. Map-based answer: wildlife sanctuaries (e.g., Corbett, Kaziranga), fertiliser plants (e.g., Sindri, Nangal), and western coast seaports (e.g., Mumbai, Kandla, Mangaluru) — any three correctly located and labelled locations should be accepted.
Q18. Problems include: uneven distribution of water resources across regions, over-exploitation of groundwater, and pollution of rivers/water bodies from industrial and domestic waste; conservation measures include rainwater harvesting and watershed management. OR: Manufacturing industries contribute to national income, generate employment, and help modernise agriculture by producing machinery/inputs used in farming.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. India.
Q20. Horizontal distribution of power divides authority among different organs of government (legislature, executive, judiciary) at the same level; vertical distribution of power divides authority between different levels of government (central, state, local).
Q21. Civil society organisations are voluntary associations, not controlled by the government, that work to influence public policy and promote citizens' interests; example — trade unions or NGOs.
Q22. They made the third tier of government — Panchayati Raj institutions in rural areas and municipalities in urban areas — a constitutionally mandated part of India's federal system.
Q23. (A)
Q24. Provisions include: regular elections to local bodies are now constitutionally mandatory; one-third of positions are reserved for women; and a State Election Commission has been created to conduct these elections.
Q25. Sources include: perceived economic neglect of a region, desire to preserve a distinct language/culture, and historical grievances related to how a region was integrated into the country.
Q26. Factors include: how leaders raise and present demands based on the social division, how the government responds to these demands, and whether the differences are being used to unite or divide people around an issue.
Q27. Discuss reservation of seats for women in local bodies, minority rights protections and communal harmony issues, and caste-based social justice policies like reservations, as different mechanisms of power-sharing among social groups. OR: Decentralisation transfers power from central/state governments to local bodies, allowing decisions to be made closer to the people they affect, improving responsiveness and participation in local governance.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. Sustainable development refers to development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Q29. Public sector enterprises are owned and operated by the government; example — Indian Railways.
Q30. The interest rate is the amount charged by a lender to a borrower for the use of borrowed money, usually expressed as a percentage of the loan amount over a period of time.
Q31. Tata Motors (or any correct example of an Indian MNC).
Q32. (A)
Q33. Criteria include: per capita income, literacy rate, and health indicators such as infant mortality rate or life expectancy at birth.
Q34. Examples include: IT and software services, banking and insurance, and tourism/hospitality.
Q35. The government/RBI regulates banks to ensure they maintain minimum cash reserves, protects small depositors through deposit insurance, and monitors that banks maintain a balance between profitable and needy borrowers, not just serving the profitable large borrowers.
Q36. Underemployment/disguised unemployment occurs when more people are engaged in an activity (like farming on a small family plot) than actually needed, so removing some of them would not reduce total output — common in Indian agriculture where family members work on the same small landholding, appearing employed but contributing little additional output. OR: The Consumer Protection Act provides a legal framework and consumer courts for redressal; labels like ISI/AGMARK/Hallmark certify quality standards, helping consumers make informed choices and hold producers accountable.
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Friday, August 14, 2026

Wheatstone Bridge | व्हीटस्टोन सेतु | Class 12 Physics

Wheatstone Bridge | व्हीटस्टोन सेतु | Class 12 Physics

⚡ व्हीटस्टोन सेतु ⚡ Wheatstone Bridge

कक्षा 12 भौतिक विज्ञान | Complete Interactive Learning Class 12 Physics | Complete Interactive Learning

1. व्हीटस्टोन सेतु क्या है? 1. What is a Wheatstone Bridge?

व्हीटस्टोन सेतु एक विद्युत परिपथ है जिसका उपयोग अज्ञात प्रतिरोध (Unknown Resistance) का मान ज्ञात करने के लिए किया जाता है।

इसमें चार प्रतिरोधों को चार भुजाओं में जोड़ा जाता है और बीच में गैल्वेनोमीटर लगाया जाता है।

मुख्य बात: संतुलन की स्थिति में गैल्वेनोमीटर में धारा शून्य होती है।

A Wheatstone Bridge is an electrical circuit used to determine the value of an unknown resistance.

It consists of four resistances connected in four arms and a galvanometer connected between the junctions.

Key Point: When the bridge is balanced, the current through the galvanometer is zero.

2. व्हीटस्टोन सेतु का Animated Circuit 2. Animated Wheatstone Bridge Circuit

🔋 Battery
P
Q
R
S
G
Galvanometer
Key

🔴 लाल बिंदु विद्युत धारा के प्रवाह को दर्शाते हैं। 🔴 Red dots represent the flow of electric current.

3. परिपथ के मुख्य अवयव 3. Main Components of the Circuit

अवयव Component कार्य Function
P, Q, R, S चार प्रतिरोध Four resistances
G गैल्वेनोमीटर Galvanometer
Battery विद्युत ऊर्जा प्रदान करती है Provides electrical energy
Key परिपथ को ON/OFF करती है Opens or closes the circuit

4. संतुलन की अवस्था 4. Balanced Condition

जब गैल्वेनोमीटर में धारा नहीं बहती है, तब Wheatstone Bridge संतुलित कहलाता है।

When no current flows through the galvanometer, the Wheatstone Bridge is said to be balanced.

P / Q = R / S

यदि S अज्ञात प्रतिरोध है:

If S is the unknown resistance:

S = QR / P

5. व्हीटस्टोन सेतु का सिद्धांत 5. Principle of Wheatstone Bridge

संतुलन की स्थिति में गैल्वेनोमीटर के दोनों सिरों का विभव समान होता है। इसलिए उनके बीच विभवांतर शून्य होता है।

At the balanced condition, the potentials at the two junctions connected to the galvanometer are equal. Therefore, the potential difference across the galvanometer is zero.

VG = 0

IG = 0

6. हल किया हुआ उदाहरण – 1 6. Solved Example – 1

एक Wheatstone Bridge में P = 2 Ω, Q = 4 Ω और R = 6 Ω है। Bridge संतुलित है। S ज्ञात कीजिए।

In a Wheatstone Bridge, P = 2 Ω, Q = 4 Ω and R = 6 Ω. The bridge is balanced. Find S.

Step 1 – Given / दिया गया:
P = 2 Ω
Q = 4 Ω
R = 6 Ω
Step 2 – Formula / सूत्र:
S = QR / P
Step 3 – Substitution / मान रखने पर:
S = (4 × 6) / 2
Step 4 – Calculation / गणना:
S = 24 / 2
S = 12 Ω
अंतिम उत्तर: S = 12 Ω Final Answer: S = 12 Ω

7. हल किया हुआ उदाहरण – 2 7. Solved Example – 2

P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω और S = 20 Ω है। R ज्ञात कीजिए।

P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω and S = 20 Ω. Find R.

P / Q = R / S
5 / 10 = R / 20
10R = 5 × 20
R = 10 Ω
अंतिम उत्तर: R = 10 Ω Final Answer: R = 10 Ω

8. हल किया हुआ उदाहरण – 3 8. Solved Example – 3

P = 3 Ω, Q = 6 Ω और R = 9 Ω है। S ज्ञात कीजिए।

P = 3 Ω, Q = 6 Ω and R = 9 Ω. Find S.

P / Q = R / S
3 / 6 = 9 / S
3S = 54
S = 18 Ω
अंतिम उत्तर: S = 18 Ω Final Answer: S = 18 Ω

9. महत्वपूर्ण सूत्र 9. Important Formulae

P / Q = R / S
S = QR / P
R = PS / Q
Q = PS / R
P = QR / S

10. Interactive Practice – प्रश्न 1 10. Interactive Practice – Question 1

P = 4 Ω, Q = 8 Ω और R = 6 Ω है। S ज्ञात कीजिए। P = 4 Ω, Q = 8 Ω and R = 6 Ω. Find S.

11. Interactive Practice – प्रश्न 2 11. Interactive Practice – Question 2

P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω और S = 20 Ω है। R ज्ञात कीजिए। P = 5 Ω, Q = 10 Ω and S = 20 Ω. Find R.

12. Interactive Practice – प्रश्न 3 12. Interactive Practice – Question 3

P = 6 Ω, Q = 12 Ω और R = 15 Ω है। S ज्ञात कीजिए। P = 6 Ω, Q = 12 Ω and R = 15 Ω. Find S.

13. Interactive Practice – प्रश्न 4 13. Interactive Practice – Question 4

P = 2 Ω, Q = 5 Ω और S = 15 Ω है। R ज्ञात कीजिए। P = 2 Ω, Q = 5 Ω and S = 15 Ω. Find R.

14. Practice Set – स्वयं हल करें 14. Practice Set – Solve Yourself

  1. P = 3 Ω, Q = 6 Ω, R = 12 Ω. S ज्ञात कीजिए।
  2. P = 4 Ω, Q = 10 Ω, S = 20 Ω. R ज्ञात कीजिए।
  3. P = 5 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, R = 10 Ω. S ज्ञात कीजिए।
  4. P = 8 Ω, Q = 12 Ω, S = 18 Ω. R ज्ञात कीजिए।
  5. P = 2 Ω, Q = 8 Ω, R = 10 Ω. S ज्ञात कीजिए।
  1. P = 3 Ω, Q = 6 Ω, R = 12 Ω. Find S.
  2. P = 4 Ω, Q = 10 Ω, S = 20 Ω. Find R.
  3. P = 5 Ω, Q = 15 Ω, R = 10 Ω. Find S.
  4. P = 8 Ω, Q = 12 Ω, S = 18 Ω. Find R.
  5. P = 2 Ω, Q = 8 Ω, R = 10 Ω. Find S.

15. Quick Revision 15. Quick Revision

Wheatstone Bridge → अज्ञात प्रतिरोध ज्ञात करना

संतुलन की स्थिति:
P / Q = R / S
Galvanometer Current:
IG = 0
Galvanometer Potential Difference:
VG = 0
Wheatstone Bridge → Measurement of Unknown Resistance

Balanced Condition:
P / Q = R / S
Galvanometer Current:
IG = 0
Potential Difference across Galvanometer:
VG = 0

Class XI Unit 3: - Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties,

Class XI Unit 3:

 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties and the supplementary topics on s & p Block Elements,  competitive-level (JEE/NEET) 

Genesis & Modern Periodic Law

  1. What is the physical basis of the Modern Periodic Law as proposed by Henry Moseley?
  2. How does the Modern Periodic Law rectify the position of isotopes which was a drawback in Mendeleev’s table?
  3. Why did the Law of Octaves fail to classify elements with higher atomic weights?
  4. In the present form of the Periodic Table, the period number corresponds to which quantum number of the elements?
  5. What is the significance of the atomic number being the fundamental property for classification instead of atomic mass?