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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 2 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is organised subject-wise into four parts: Part I — History, Part II — Geography, Part III — Political Science, and Part IV — Economics, each carrying 20 marks.
2. Each part contains four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ, 1 mark each), Section 2 — Short Answer (3 marks each), Section 3 — Long Answer (5 marks), and Section 4 — Source/Case-Based Question (4 marks).
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions; attempt only one option wherever a choice is given.
4. All questions are compulsory unless an internal choice is indicated.
5. Marks for each question are indicated against it. Answer within the suggested word limit wherever applicable.
6. This is a practice paper prepared in line with the CBSE Class X Social Science (087) design for the 2026-27 session.
PART I — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Gandhi in 1920, was closely linked with which other movement demanded by Indian Muslims? 1
Q2. In which year was the Rowlatt Act passed by the British government? 1
Q3. Name the journal/newspaper edited by Mahatma Gandhi that was widely used to spread nationalist ideas. 1
Q4. Which social group was significantly affected by the fall in agricultural prices during the Great Depression, leading many of them to join the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1
Q5. Which event, in March 1930, marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q7
Q6. Explain any three reasons why the Non-Cooperation Movement, though widespread in cities, began to slow down after 1922. 3
Q7. Describe the role played by women in the Civil Disobedience Movement. 3
— OR —
Explain how the image of "Bharat Mata" came to symbolise the idea of nationalism during the freedom struggle. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q8
Q8. Describe the effects of the First World War on Indian economy and society, and explain how these effects contributed to the rise of the Non-Cooperation Movement. 5
— OR —
Explain the significance of the Salt March and the Civil Disobedience Movement in the history of India's freedom struggle. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q9
Q9. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
In February 1922, a large group of peasants participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with the police at Chauri Chaura, a small town in the United Provinces. The violence resulted in the deaths of several policemen when an angry crowd set fire to the police station. On learning of this incident, Mahatma Gandhi, deeply disturbed by the violence, decided to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement, believing that the movement was turning violent before people had been properly trained in the discipline of non-violence.
(i) Where did the Chauri Chaura incident take place? (1)
(ii) Why did Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement after this incident? (1)
(iii) What does this incident reveal about the challenges Gandhi faced in keeping a mass movement strictly non-violent? (2)
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PART II — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which type of soil, found extensively on the Deccan Plateau, is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton? 1
Q11. Which Indian state is the largest producer of jute? 1
Q12. Forest and wildlife resources classified on the basis of ownership are divided into reserved/protected forests and: 1
Q13. Which fibre crop is commonly referred to as the "golden fibre" of India? 1
Q14. Name any one multi-purpose river valley project of India. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q16
Q15. Explain any three factors that affect the distribution of natural vegetation in India. 3
Q16. Describe any three problems associated with land degradation faced by farmers in different parts of India. 3
— OR —
Explain any three measures of water conservation and management commonly adopted in India. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q17
Q17. Describe the distribution of iron ore in India and explain its importance to the Indian economy. 5
— OR —
Explain the role of the manufacturing sector in the development of the Indian economy, with suitable examples. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q18
Q18. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
Large-scale deforestation, carried out to make way for agriculture, mining, and urban expansion, has significantly reduced India's forest cover over the past century. This loss of tree cover has contributed to soil erosion, disruption of local rainfall patterns, and loss of habitat for numerous plant and animal species. In response, the government and local communities have increasingly promoted afforestation programmes, community forestry initiatives, and stricter enforcement of forest protection laws to reverse this trend and conserve India's remaining forest wealth.
(i) Name one direct consequence of large-scale deforestation mentioned in the passage. (1)
(ii) Name one activity responsible for the loss of forest cover in India, as mentioned in the passage. (1)
(iii) Suggest two ways, based on the passage, in which forest cover can be conserved or restored. (2)
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PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. What is meant by "power sharing" in a democracy? 1
Q20. The failure to accommodate the aspirations of the Tamil minority, leading to prolonged civil conflict, is most closely associated with which country? 1
Q21. A government formed when no single party wins a clear majority, requiring two or more parties to share power together, is called a: 1
Q22. Which of the following is an example of a social division that can influence politics in a democracy? 1
Q23. A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various constituent regions/states of the country is called: 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q25
Q24. Explain any three features of a federal system of government. 3
Q25. Describe the role of local government (the "third tier") in strengthening democracy in India. 3
— OR —
Explain, with an example, how social divisions can sometimes strengthen democracy rather than weaken it. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q26
Q26. Explain the prudential and moral reasons for power-sharing in a democracy. 5
— OR —
Discuss the outcomes of democracy, evaluating whether democratic governments have been successful in achieving their expected goals in India. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q27
Q27. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced significant ethnic and linguistic diversity after gaining independence, but their political systems dealt with this diversity very differently. Belgium adopted a power-sharing arrangement that gave roughly equal representation and autonomy to its different linguistic communities, resulting in relative political stability. Sri Lanka, on the other hand, adopted policies that favoured the Sinhala majority over the Tamil minority in areas such as language, employment and education, which contributed to decades of civil conflict.
(i) Which country adopted a power-sharing arrangement giving roughly equal representation to its different communities? (1)
(ii) Name one area in which Sri Lankan policies favoured the majority community over the Tamil minority. (1)
(iii) Based on the comparison, explain why power-sharing arrangements are often considered important for maintaining stability in diverse societies. (2)
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PART IV — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. In economic terms, "development" of a country or region is best understood as: 1
Q29. Based on the nature of economic activity, the economy is divided into primary, secondary, and which other sector? 1
Q30. A situation where more people are engaged in an activity than actually needed, resulting in little or no addition to output, is called: 1
Q31. Name one government scheme in India that aims to guarantee a minimum number of days of wage employment in rural areas. 1
Q32. Which of the following is an example of a formal source of credit? 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q34
Q33. Explain any three factors, other than per capita income, that should be considered while assessing the development of a country or state. 3
Q34. Describe the role of the tertiary sector in generating employment in India in recent decades. 3
— OR —
Explain any three problems commonly associated with workers employed in the informal sector in India. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q35
Q35. Explain the role of credit in the process of economic development, giving examples of both its positive and negative outcomes for borrowers. 5
— OR —
Discuss the impact of globalisation on the Indian economy, considering its effects on producers, workers and consumers. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q36
Q36. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of application, applicants are entitled to a daily unemployment allowance. The scheme aims not only to provide income security to rural households but also to create durable community assets such as roads, ponds, and irrigation infrastructure.
(i) How many days of guaranteed wage employment does MGNREGA provide per rural household per year? (1)
(ii) What happens if the government is unable to provide employment within 15 days of application under this scheme? (1)
(iii) Explain how a scheme like MGNREGA can contribute to rural development beyond simply providing wages. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Analysis
1. Subject-wise (Part-wise) Marks Distribution
| Part | Subject | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|
| I | History | 20 |
| II | Geography | 20 |
| III | Political Science | 20 |
| IV | Economics | 20 |
| Total | 80 | |
2. Section-wise Typology (per Part)
| Section | Question Type | No. of Questions | Marks each | Marks per Part |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Very Short Answer (MCQ) | 5 | 1 | 5 |
| 2 | Short Answer | 2 | 3 | 6 |
| 3 | Long Answer | 1 | 5 | 5 |
| 4 | Source-Based (1+1+2) | 1 | 4 | 4 |
| Total per Part | 20 | |||
The same section-wise pattern (5+6+5+4 = 20 marks) is repeated identically across all four subject-wise parts, giving a paper total of 80 marks.
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Description | Approx. Marks | Percentage |
|---|---|---|---|
| Remembering & Understanding | Recall of facts, definitions, direct concept-based questions | 40 | 50% |
| Applying | Application of concepts to explain, illustrate, or describe situations | 24 | 30% |
| Analysing, Evaluating & Creating | Source-based reasoning, comparison, and evaluative long-answer questions | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Internal choices are provided in Q7, Q8, Q16, Q17, Q25, Q26, Q34 and Q35 — one question with a choice in Section 2 and Section 3 of every part, i.e. approximately one-third of the total questions across the paper.
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Answer Key
PART I — HISTORY
Q1. (B) Q2. (B) Q3. (B) Q4. (B) Q5. (A)
Q6. Withdrawal after Chauri Chaura reduced momentum; Council elections of 1923 diverted energies of some Congress leaders; differences between Swarajists and no-changers within Congress; economic hardships led some participants to withdraw over time (any three).
Q7. Women participated by picketing shops selling foreign cloth/liquor, joining protest marches, manufacturing salt during the Dandi March, and many went to jail — marking a significant break from traditional domestic roles. OR: The image of "Bharat Mata" was popularised by nationalist writers/artists (e.g., Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, Abanindranath Tagore) as a mother figure representing the nation, inspiring people to see the struggle for freedom as a devotion to the motherland.
Q8. WWI led to forced recruitment, increased taxes, and rising prices, causing widespread economic hardship and resentment against colonial rule; combined with the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre, this hardship and anger created the conditions for a mass movement, which Gandhi channelled into the Non-Cooperation Movement. OR: The Salt March broke a widely felt unjust law, mobilised diverse sections of society (peasants, women, business classes), attracted international attention to India's freedom struggle, and marked the start of large-scale civil disobedience across the country.
Q9. (i) Chauri Chaura, a small town in the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh). (ii) Gandhi withdrew the movement because he was deeply disturbed by the violence and believed people had not yet been sufficiently trained in disciplined non-violence. (iii) It reveals that maintaining strict non-violence across a large, spontaneous mass movement was extremely difficult, as local frustrations and provocations could easily lead to violent outbursts despite the movement's official non-violent strategy.
PART II — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (B) Q11. (C) Q12. (B) Q13. (B) Q14. (A)
Q15. Relief/altitude, climate (temperature and rainfall), and soil type together determine the type and density of natural vegetation in a given region (any three factors explained).
Q16. Deforestation, overgrazing, unscientific mining, and industrial effluents/wastes all contribute to the degradation of land in various regions of India (any three explained).
OR: Rainwater harvesting, construction of dams/check dams, and watershed management/drip irrigation are common measures used to conserve and manage water resources sustainably (any three).
Q17. Major iron ore belts are found in Chhattisgarh-Odisha-Jharkhand region, Karnataka, and Maharashtra-Goa region; iron ore is vital as the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry, which in turn supports the entire manufacturing sector and infrastructure development. OR: The manufacturing sector adds value to raw materials, generates employment, promotes agriculture (through agro-based industries), reduces heavy dependence on agriculture, and helps in earning foreign exchange through exports.
Q18. (i) Soil erosion, disrupted rainfall patterns, or habitat/biodiversity loss (any one). (ii) Agriculture expansion, mining, or urban expansion (any one). (iii) Promoting afforestation programmes, and enforcing/strengthening forest protection laws alongside community-led conservation initiatives (any two).
PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B) Q20. (B) Q21. (B) Q22. (A) Q23. (B)
Q24. There are two or more levels/tiers of government; each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation and administration; the fundamental provisions of the constitution generally cannot be unilaterally changed by one level alone (any three features explained).
Q25. Local governments bring decision-making closer to the people, allow for better understanding of and response to local needs, and increase citizen participation in governance through elected local bodies. OR: Social divisions, when accommodated through mechanisms like power-sharing or representation, can strengthen democracy by ensuring diverse groups feel included and represented, rather than excluded — e.g., the accommodation of linguistic diversity in India's federal structure.
Q26. Prudential reason: power-sharing reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups, ensuring political stability; moral reason: power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy, as it upholds the principle that people affected by a decision should have a say in it. OR: Democracy has generally led to more accountable and legitimate government, improved economic and social outcomes over time, and greater dignity and freedom for citizens in India, though challenges like inequality and corruption remain, showing progress is real but incomplete.
Q27. (i) Belgium. (ii) Language, employment, or education (any one area mentioned). (iii) Power-sharing arrangements help ensure that no community feels excluded or discriminated against, reducing resentment and the risk of conflict, and allowing diverse societies to function with greater political stability, as shown by the contrasting experiences of Belgium and Sri Lanka.
PART IV — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B) Q29. (B) Q30. (B) Q31. (A) Q32. (B)
Q33. Average years of schooling/literacy rate, life expectancy at birth, and access to basic amenities like clean water and healthcare are important non-income indicators of development (any three explained).
Q34. The tertiary sector, including trade, transport, banking, IT, and other services, has grown rapidly and now generates a large share of employment, particularly in urban areas, as the economy diversifies beyond agriculture. OR: Workers in the informal sector often face job insecurity, lack of minimum wage protection, absence of social security benefits, and unsafe working conditions (any three).
Q35. Credit can positively support development by enabling investment in agriculture, small businesses, and education, leading to higher incomes; however, credit can also become a "trap" when high-interest informal loans lead to debt burdens that borrowers struggle to repay, especially among farmers relying on informal moneylenders. OR: Globalisation has increased competition (positive for consumers through wider choice and lower prices, but challenging for small local producers), created new employment opportunities in some sectors (e.g., IT/BPO) while threatening jobs in others facing import competition, and generally increased economic interdependence between India and the rest of the world.
Q36. (i) At least 100 days per rural household per financial year. (ii) The applicant is entitled to receive a daily unemployment allowance. (iii) Beyond wages, the scheme creates durable community assets (roads, ponds, irrigation works), which can improve local infrastructure and support longer-term rural development, while also empowering rural households, especially women, through guaranteed income security.
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Detailed Marking Scheme
General Marking Guidelines
• Section 1 (MCQ): 1 mark for the correct option only; no partial credit.
• Section 2 (3-mark questions): 1 mark per valid point, up to a maximum of 3; each point should include a brief explanation, not just a label.
• Section 3 (5-mark questions): marks awarded for depth and range of explanation, relevant examples, and a well-organised answer covering multiple dimensions of the question.
• Section 4 (Source-based, 4 marks): each sub-part is marked independently as indicated (1, 1, 2); the 2-mark sub-part requires both a valid point and a clear explanation.
• Alternative correct points or examples not listed in the model answer should be given full credit if relevant and accurate.
Part-wise Mark Allocation Recap
| Part | Section 1 | Section 2 | Section 3 | Section 4 | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| I — History | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| II — Geography | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| III — Political Science | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| IV — Economics | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| Grand Total | 20 | 24 | 20 | 16 | 80 |
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