CLASS 12TH COMPTETICE PRACTICE QUESTION
Student Name: ___________________________ Roll No.: __________________________
Instructions: (1) All 100 questions are compulsory. Each correct answer carries 1 mark. (2) No negative marking. (3) Questions involve application, reasoning, and multi-step problem solving. (4) Students of the Mathematics group must attempt only the MATHS section, and students of the Biology group must attempt only the BIOLOGY section — both carry the same question numbers (Q.1 to Q.40).
Subject-wise Distribution:
MATHS (for Maths group) / BIOLOGY (for Biology group): Q.1 – Q.40 — 40 Marks
CHEMISTRY: Q.41 – Q.60 — 20 Marks
PHYSICS: Q.61 – Q.80 — 20 Marks
ENGLISH: Q.81 – Q.90 — 10 Marks
GK / IT: Q.91 – Q.100 — 10 Marks
SUBJECT: MATHS | Q.1 – 40 | 40 Marks (For Mathematics Group Students Only)
Q1. If a matrix A is both symmetric and skew-symmetric, then A is a:
(A) Diagonal matrix (B) Zero matrix (C) Scalar matrix (D) Square matrix
Q2. If A is a square matrix such that A² = A, then (I + A)³ − 7A is equal to:
(A) A (B) I − A (C) I (D) 3A
Q3. The total number of possible matrices of order 3 × 3 with each entry 0 or 1 is:
(A) 27 (B) 18 (C) 81 (D) 512
Q4. If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then AB − BA is a:
(A) Skew-symmetric matrix (B) Symmetric matrix (C) Zero matrix (D) Identity matrix
Q5. If A = [α β; γ −α] is such that A² = I, then:
(A) 1 + α² + βγ = 0 (B) 1 − α² + βγ = 0 (C) 1 − α² − βγ = 0 (D) 1 + α² − βγ = 0
Q6. If the matrix A is symmetric, then Aᵀ is equal to:
(A) A (B) −A (C) I (D) 0
Q7. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 5, then the value of |2A| is:
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 80
Q8. For two invertible matrices A and B of the same order, (AB)⁻¹ is equal to:
(A) A⁻¹B⁻¹ (B) B⁻¹A⁻¹ (C) A B⁻¹ (D) B A⁻¹
Q9. If a matrix has 18 elements, what are the possible orders it can have?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
Q10. If A is a matrix of order m × n and B is a matrix such that AB and BA are both defined, then the order of matrix B is:
(A) m × n (B) n × m (C) n × n (D) m × m
Q11. If A = [0 1; 1 0], then A⁴ is equal to:
(A) [0 1; 1 0] (B) [1 0; 0 1] (C) [0 0; 0 0] (D) [4 0; 0 4]
Q12. A square matrix A = [aij] is skew-symmetric if:
(A) aij = aji (B) aij = −aji (C) aij = 0 (D) aij = 1
Q13. If A is a non-singular matrix of order 3, then A · adj(A) is equal to:
(A) |A|I (B) I (C) 0 (D) |A|²I
Q14. The diagonal elements of a skew-symmetric matrix are always:
(A) Real numbers (B) Imaginary numbers (C) All zeros (D) All ones
Q15. If A = [cos θ −sin θ; sin θ cos θ], then A + Aᵀ = I if the value of θ is:
(A) π/6 (B) π/3 (C) π (D) 3π/2
Q16. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 4, then |adj(A)| is equal to:
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 256
Q17. If the area of a triangle with vertices (2, −6), (5, 4), and (k, 4) is 35 sq units, then k is:
(A) 12 (B) −2 (C) −12, −2 (D) 12, −2
Q18. If A is an invertible matrix of order 2, then det(A⁻¹) is equal to:
(A) det(A) (B) 1 / det(A) (C) 1 (D) 0
Q19. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |kA| is equal to:
(A) k|A| (B) k²|A| (C) k³|A| (D) 3k|A|
Q20. If a, b, c are in Arithmetic Progression (A.P.), then the determinant of the matrix with rows [x+1 x+2 x+a], [x+2 x+3 x+b], [x+3 x+4 x+c] is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) x (D) 2x
Q21. If Δ = |a11 a12 a13; a21 a22 a23; a31 a32 a33| and Aij is cofactor of aij, then value of Δ is given by:
(A) a11A31 + a12A32 + a13A33 (B) a11A11 + a12A21 + a13A31
(C) a21A11 + a22A12 + a23A13 (D) a11A11 + a21A21 + a31A31
Q22. For what value of x is the matrix [x+2 3; 4 5] singular?
(A) 2/5 (B) 1/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 4/5
Q23. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 3, then |adj(adj(A))| is equal to:
(A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 81 (D) 243
Q24. If A = [2 3; 1 4], then the determinant of A² − 6A is:
(A) 5 (B) −5 (C) 25 (D) −25
Q25. The system of linear equations x + y + z = 2, 2x + 3y + 2z = 5, 2x + 3y + (a²−1)z = a + 1 has unique solution if a is not equal to:
(A) ±√3 (B) ±1 (C) ±√2 (D) 0
Q26. If the points (x, −2), (5, 2), and (8, 8) are collinear, then the value of x is:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q27. If A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = −1 and |B| = 3, then |3AB| is:
(A) −9 (B) −81 (C) −27 (D) 81
Q28. If f(x) = |x 1 1; 1 x 1; 1 1 x|, then the roots of the equation f(x) = 0 are:
(A) 1, −2 (B) −1, 2 (C) 1, 2 (D) −1, −1
Q29. If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of odd order n, then |A| is equal to:
(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) n
Q30. If |x 2; 18 x| = |6 2; 18 6|, then x is equal to:
(A) 6 (B) ±6 (C) −6 (D) 0
Q31. The principal value branch of sin⁻¹x is:
(A) [0, π] (B) [−π/2, π/2] (C) (−π/2, π/2) (D) [−π/2, π/2] − {0}
Q32. The value of sin⁻¹(sin(2π/3)) is:
(A) 2π/3 (B) π/3 (C) −π/3 (D) 4π/3
Q33. The principal value of cos⁻¹(−1/2) is:
(A) π/3 (B) 2π/3 (C) 4π/3 (D) −π/3
Q34. The domain of the function defined by f(x) = sin⁻¹(√(x − 1)) is:
(A) [1, 2] (B) [0, 1] (C) [−1, 1] (D) [0, 2]
Q35. The value of tan⁻¹(√3) − sec⁻¹(−2) is equal to:
(A) π (B) −π/3
Q36. The value of sin⁻¹(cos(33π/5)) is:
(A) 3π/5 (B) −π/10 (C) π/10 (D) 7π/10
Q37. The simplified form of tan⁻¹(cos x / (1 − sin x)) for −π/2 < x < 3π/2 is:
(A) π/4 − x/2 (B) π/4 + x/2 (C) x/2 (D) π/2 − x
Q38. If 3 sin⁻¹x + cos⁻¹x = π, then x is equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/√2 (D) 1
Q39. The value of tan[2 tan⁻¹(1/5) − π/4] is:
(A) 7/17 (B) −7/17 (C) 17/7 (D) −17/7
Q40. The range of sec⁻¹x is:
(A) [0, π] (B) [0, π] − {π/2} (C) [−π/2, π/2] (D) (0, π)
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY | Q.1 – 40 | 40 Marks (For Biology Group Students Only)
Q1. Which of the most resistant organic materials makes up the exine of pollen grains?
A) Cellulose B) Pectin C) Sporopollenin D) Lignin
Q2. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
A) 8-nucleate and 7-celled B) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
C) 8-nucleate and 8-celled D) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
Q3. What type of pollination ensures genetically different types of pollen grains are brought to the stigma?
A) Geitonogamy B) Cleistogamy C) Autogamy D) Xenogamy
Q4. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms. It involves:
A) Syngamy and triple fusion B) Two syngamies
C) Triple fusion and geitonogamy D) Two triple fusions
Q5. The filiform apparatus is a distinctive feature of which cell type?
A) Egg cell B) Synergids C) Antipodal cells D) Central cell
Q6. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
A) Perisperm B) Pericarp C) Endosperm D) Scutellum
Q7. In a non-albuminous seed, the endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo. Which of the following is an example of a non-albuminous seed?
A) Castor B) Maize C) Pea D) Wheat
Q8. Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. What happens during apomixis?
A) Seeds develop without fertilization B) Fruit develops without fertilization
C) Gametes fuse normally D) Meiosis occurs normally
Q9. What is the ploidy level of the cells of the aleurone layer in a maize grain?
A) Haploid (n) B) Diploid (2n) C) Triploid (3n) D) Tetraploid (4n)
Q10. Cleistogamous flowers ensure pollination because:
A) They are large and fragrant B) They never open
C) They possess nectar guides D) They are wind-pollinated
Q11. Which of the following cells undergoes meiosis to directly form microspores?
A) Microspore tetrad B) Pollen mother cell C) Endothecium cell D) Tapetum cell
Q12. Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed-setting is assured in which of the following plants?
A) Commelina B) Zostera C) Salvia D) Fig
Q13. The phenomenon where the ovary develops into a fruit without undergoing fertilization is called:
A) Apomixis B) Parthenocarpy C) Polyembryony D) Parthenogenesis
Q14. Which layer of the microsporangium wall provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains?
A) Epidermis B) Endothecium C) Middle layers D) Tapetum
Q15. Over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at which developmental stage?
A) 2-celled stage B) 3-celled stage C) 4-celled stage D) Single-celled stage
Q16. Wind pollination (anemophily) is commonly found in which of the following plants?
A) Vallisneria B) Grasses C) Water lily D) Orchids
Q17. What is the function of the germ pore in a pollen grain?
A) It absorbs water for the pollen grain
B) It is the site where sporopollenin is absent to allow pollen tube emergence
C) It initiates the division of the generative cell
D) It secretes enzymes to digest stigmatic tissue
Q18. An example of a false fruit where the thalamus contributes to fruit formation is:
A) Banana B) Apple C) Mango D) Tomato
Q19. While planning an artificial hybridization experiment involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps is NOT required?
A) Emasculation B) Bagging C) Dusting of pollen grains D) Re-bagging
Q20. Citrus plants often exhibit polyembryony. This occurs because:
A) Multiple pollen tubes enter the same embryo sac
B) Nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac divide and protrude into it
C) The antipodal cells function as extra embryos
D) The central cell undergoes multiple divisions
Q21. Which of the following is an example of a non-medicated Intrauterine Device (IUD)?
A) CuT B) Multiload 375 C) Lippes loop D) LNG-20
Q22. The oral contraceptive pill 'Saheli', developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, is highly preferred because it is a:
A) Once-a-day pill containing high estrogen
B) Non-steroidal pill taken once a week
C) Steroidal pill taken daily
D) Non-steroidal pill taken once a month
Q23. Surgical methods of contraception, such as vasectomy and tubectomy, are highly effective but generally not preferred as a primary choice because:
A) They have a high failure rate B) They cause severe hormonal imbalances
C) Their reversibility is very poor D) They do not prevent ovulation
Q24. Amniocentesis is a technique used to detect chromosomal abnormalities in a fetus. However, it is legally banned in India for sex determination to prevent:
A) Maternal mortality B) Female foeticide C) Genetic mutations D) STIs transmission
Q25. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is completely curable if detected early and treated properly?
A) Hepatitis-B B) Genital herpes C) HIV infection D) Chlamydiasis
Q26. In case of a couple where the male partner has a very low sperm count (oligospermia) or is unable to inseminate the female, which Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) is most suitable?
A) GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer)
B) ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer)
C) AI (Artificial Insemination)
D) IUT (Intra-Uterine Transfer)
Q27. What is the mechanism of action of copper-releasing IUDs like CuT and Cu7?
A) They block the entry of sperm into the cervix completely
B) They inhibit ovulation and alter the quality of cervical mucus
C) They suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of sperms
D) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
Q28. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act of India, a pregnancy can be safely terminated on certain grounds within how many weeks?
A) Safe up to 12 weeks, with a provision up to 24 weeks under specific conditions
B) Safe only up to 6 weeks
C) Safe anytime up to the third trimester
D) Allowed only within the first 4 weeks
Q29. Under the ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer) procedure, at what stage is the embryo transferred into the fallopian tube?
A) At the 16-blastomere stage
B) Up to the 8-blastomere stage
C) Only at the gastrula stage
D) Direct transfer of unfertilized egg and sperm
Q30. The primary sex organ in human males is the:
A) Prostate gland B) Testis C) Vas deferens D) Seminal vesicle
Q31.Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between a clone and offspring produced via sexual reproduction ?
A. Clones exhibit extensive genetic variations, while sexual offspring do not.
B. Clones are morphologically and genetically identical to a single parent.
C. Clones are formed only through the fusion of gametes.
D. Sexual offspring are exact structural
Q32.The structural component of an aquatic plant known as the "Terror of Bengal" spreads rapidly throughout standing water bodies via a specific vegetative propagule. What is this propagule called ?
A. Runner
B. Sucker
C. Offset
D. Rhizome
Q33 Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a protective, three-layered hard wall around itself. What is this specific phenomenon called?
A. Sporulation
B. Encystation
C. Budding
D. Fragmentation
Q34.Non-primate mammals show cyclic changes during their breeding season known as the :
A. Menstrual cycle
B. Oestrus cycle
C. Circadian cycle
D. Juvenile cycle
Q35.If the meiocyte (gamete mother cell) of a maize plant contains 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in its functional gamete ?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Q36.In which of the following organisms does external fertilization occur, requiring a highly synchronized release of gametes into the surrounding medium?A. Reptiles and Birds
B. Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
C. Most Algae and Amphibians
D. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
Q37.What is the legal or biological definition of the period spanning from an organism's birth to its natural death ?
A. Senescence
B. Life span
C. Juvenile phase
D. Life cycle
Q38.The development of a new organism directly from an unfertilized female gamete without undergoing fertilization is known as:
A. Parthenocarpy
B. Parthenogenesis
C. Syngamy
D. Apomixis
Q39.How do copper-releasing IUDs (Intrauterine Devices), such as CuT, function to prevent pregnancy ?
A. They completely suppress the process of ovulation.
B. They prevent the entry of sperms into the vagina.
C. They release copper ions that suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity.
D. They dissolve the ovum before it can be fertilized.
Q40.What does MTP stand for in the context of reproductive health?
A. Maternal Transmission Prevention
B. Maximum Therapeutic Period
C. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
D. Multiple Tubal PregnancyShow
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY | Q.41 – 60 | 20 Marks
Q41. The solubility of CaCO3 is 7 × 10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³ at 25°C. What is its solubility product at same temperature?
A) 6.7 × 10⁻⁹ B) 9.0 × 10⁻⁹ C) 1.12 × 10⁻⁹ D) 4.9 × 10⁻⁹
Q42. Which from following mixtures obeys Raoult's law?
A) Chloroform + acetone B) Carbon disulfide + acetone
C) Benzene + toluene D) Ethanol + acetone
Q43. The Henry's law constant for oxygen is 1.3 × 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³ atm⁻¹. If partial pressure of oxygen is 0.46 atmosphere, what is the concentration of dissolved oxygen at 25°C and 1 atm pressure?
A) 5.98 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ B) 3.53 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³
C) 5.98 mol dm⁻³ D) 2.82 × 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³
Q44. Find the expected value of ΔTb for 1 m AlCl3 solution in water if 1 m solution of nonelectrolyte of same concentration has ΔTb value 'x' K.
A) x K B) 2x K C) 3x K D) 4x K
Q45. Calculate the boiling point elevation of solution if 15 g urea is dissolved in 1000 g water. [Kb = 0.52 K kg mol⁻¹; molar mass of urea = 60 g mol⁻¹]
A) 0.13 K B) 0.24 K C) 0.38 K D) 0.54 K
Q46. Calculate the amount of solute dissolved in 612 grams of water at 30°C if molar mass of solute is 342 g mol⁻¹ (Relative vapour pressure lowering is 0.025 and molar mass of water = 18 g mol⁻¹)
A) 142.5 gram B) 270.6 gram C) 240.2 gram D) 290.7 gram
Q47. Solutions A, B, C and D are respectively 0.2 M urea, 0.10 M NaCl, 0.05 M BaCl2 and 0.05 M AlCl3. All solutions are isotonic with each other except ___.
A) B B) A C) D D) C
Q48. Calculate molality of solution of a nonvolatile solute having boiling point elevation 1.89 K if boiling point elevation constant of solvent is 3.15 K kg mol⁻¹.
A) 0.4 m B) 0.8 m C) 0.6 m D) 0.3 m
Q49. 34.2 g of cane sugar is dissolved in 180 g of water. The relative lowering of vapour pressure will be:
A) 0.0099 B) 1.1597 C) 0.840 D) 0.9901
Q50. Which from following pairs of solutions in water exhibits same osmotic pressure at same temperature? [molar mass of urea = 60 g mol⁻¹, sucrose = 342 g mol⁻¹]
A) 3 g L⁻¹ urea and 17.1 g L⁻¹ sucrose B) 6 g L⁻¹ urea and 17.1 g L⁻¹ sucrose
C) 3 g L⁻¹ urea and 34.2 g L⁻¹ sucrose D) 6 g L⁻¹ urea and 8.6 g L⁻¹ sucrose
Q51. Which is the weight of Al deposited at cathode when 1 ampere current is passed through molten AlCl3 for 9650 seconds? (Atomic mass of Al = 27)
A) 3.0 g B) 9.0 g C) 13.6 g D) 0.9 g
Q52. If standard emf of cell Zn(s) | Zn⁺²(1M) || Ag⁺¹(1M) | Ag(s) is 1.55 V, what is electrical work done under standard conditions?
A) −144.750 kJ B) −193.00 kJ C) −299.150 kJ D) −386.00 kJ
Q53. What happens to the emf for the cell Zn(s) | Zn⁺²(1M) || Ag⁺¹(1M) | Ag(s), if concentration of Ag⁺¹ decreases to 0.1 M?
A) increase by 0.0592 V B) decrease by 0.0592 V
C) increase by 0.0296 V D) decrease by 0.0296 V
Q54. The standard emf for cell, Cd(s) | Cd⁺²(1M) || Cu⁺²(1M) | Cu(s) is 0.74 V. If concentration of Cd⁺²(aq) and Cu⁺²(aq) decreases by 10 times at 298 K, calculate emf of cell.
A) +0.074 V B) +0.850 V C) +0.680 V D) +0.740 V
Q55. The standard reduction potential for Mg2+/Mg is −2.37 V and for Cu2+/Cu is 0.337 V. The E°cell for the following reaction is: Mg + Cu²⁺ ⟶ Mg²⁺ + Cu
A) +2.03 V B) −2.03 V C) −2.7 V D) +2.7 V
Q56. Identify the overall oxidation reaction that occurs in lead storage cell during discharge.
A) Pb⁺⁺(aq) + SO4⁻⁻(aq) ⟶ PbSO4(s)
B) PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) ⟶ PbO2(s) + 4H⁺(aq) + SO4⁻⁻(aq) + 2e⁻
C) Pb(s) + SO4⁻⁻(aq) ⟶ PbSO4(s) + 2e⁻
D) PbSO4(s) + 2e⁻ ⟶ Pb(s) + SO4⁻⁻(aq)
Q57. What is the common unit of conductivity if the dimensions are expressed in centimeter?
A) Ω cm⁻¹ B) Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹ C) Ω cm D) Ω⁻¹ cm
Q58. Which from following electrolytes, molar conductivity is determined using Kohlrausch's law?
A) KCl B) Na2SO4 C) CH3COOH D) HCl
Q59. Conductivity of a 0.01 M solution is 1.26 × 10⁻² Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹. Calculate molar conductivity for the solution.
A) 1.26 × 10³ Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ B) 2.52 × 10³ Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
C) 4.82 × 10³ Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ D) 6.30 × 10³ Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
Q60. The resistance of 1/10 M solution is 2.5 × 10³ ohm. What is the molar conductivity of solution? (cell constant = 1.25 cm⁻¹)
A) 3.5 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ B) 5.0 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
C) 2.5 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ D) 2.0 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹
SUBJECT: PHYSICS | Q.61 – 80 | 20 Marks
Q 61. According to Coulomb's Law, the force (F) between two point charges:
A) Is directly proportional to the distance
B) Is inversely proportional to the square of the distance
C) Is proportional to the sum of charges
D) Does not depend on the medium
Q 62. In an isolated system, the total electric charge remains constant. This principle is known as:
A) Quantization of charge B) Conservation of charge
C) Superposition principle D) Coulomb's law
Q 63. The direction of electric dipole moment is:
A) From positive to negative charge B) From negative to positive charge
C) Always perpendicular to the field D) No specific direction
Q 64. The net force on a dipole placed in a uniform electric field is:
A) Always zero B) Equal to dipole moment C) Equal to charge D) Equal to field strength
Q 65. According to Gauss's Law, the total electric flux (ϕ) through a closed surface is equal to:
A) q/ε₀ B) q × ε₀ C) E × A D) Always zero
Q 66. The work done in moving a charge from one point to another on an equipotential surface is:
A) Maximum B) Minimum C) Zero D) Equal to square of charge
Q 67. The correct relation between Electric field (E) and Electric potential (V) is:
A) E = dV/dr B) E = −dV/dr C) V = dE/dr D) E = V × r
Q 68. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend on:
A) Area of plates B) Distance between plates C) Material of plates D) Medium (dielectric)
Q.69 If a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance:
A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains
is:
A) ½CV² B) CV C) ½C²V D) V²/C
Q 70. The correct relation between Electric current (I) and drift velocity (v_d) is:
A) I = nAev_d B) I = ne/A v_d C) I = v_d / nAe D) I = nAv_d / e
Q 71. Ohm's Law is valid only when:
A) Temperature is changing B) Temperature is constant
C) Current is very high D) Resistance is zero
Q 72. The unit of conductivity (σ) is:
A) Ohm-metre B) Ohm⁻¹ metre⁻¹ (Siemens/m) C) Ohm D) Volt/Ampere
Q 73. On increasing temperature, the resistance of metals:
A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains same D) First increases then decreases
Q 74. Resistivity (ρ) depends on:
A) Length of wire B) Cross-section area of wire
C) Nature of material and temperature D) Shape of wire
Q75. The terminal potential difference (V) of a cell with internal resistance r when current is flowing:
A) V = E + Ir B) V = E − Ir C) V = E/Ir D) V = Ir
Q 76. Kirchhoff's First Law (Junction Rule) is based on the conservation of:
A) Energy B) Charge C) Momentum D) Mass
Q 77. Kirchhoff's Second Law (Loop Rule) represents conservation of:
A) Charge B) Energy C) Current D) Voltage
Q78. In balanced condition of Wheatstone Bridge (P/Q = R/S), the current through galvanometer is:
A) Maximum B) Zero C) Half of total current D) Infinite
Q79. Metre Bridge works on the principle of:
A) Ohm's Law B) Wheatstone Bridge C) Kirchhoff's Law D) Faraday's Law
Q80. In an elastic collision in one dimension, the relative velocity of separation is equal to:
A) Relative velocity of approach B) Half the relative velocity
C) Twice the relative velocity D) Zero
SUBJECT: ENGLISH | Q.81 – 90 | 10 Marks
Q81. Why was Franz surprised when he reached school?
A. The school was closed. B. The school was unusually quiet.
C. There was a holiday. D. The students were playing outside.
Q82. What was M. Hamel's announcement at the beginning of the class?
A. He was retiring from teaching. B. It was their last French lesson.
C. The school was shifting to another village. D. There would be an examination.
Q83. Franz regretted not learning his lessons because he
A. feared punishment from his parents. B. wanted to become a teacher.
C. realized the value of his language too late. D. wanted to impress his friends.
Q84. What does the phrase "the world's most beautiful language" refer to in The Last Lesson?
A. German B. English C. French D. Latin
Q85. In the poem My Mother at Sixty-Six, the poet compares her mother's face to
A. a blooming flower. B. the late winter's moon. C. a shining star. D. a bright sun.
Q86. The poet's repeated smile at the airport mainly expresses
A. excitement about the journey. B. relief after meeting her mother.
C. an attempt to hide her fear and sadness. D. confidence about the future.
Q87. According to Charley in The Third Level, the third level was located at
A. Grand Central Station. B. Times Square Station.
C. Pennsylvania Station. D. Central Park.
Q88. Why did Charley want to travel to Galesburg, Illinois?
A. To attend a business meeting. B. To escape the worries of modern life.
C. To visit his grandparents. D. To start a new job.
Q89. What evidence convinced Charley that Sam had reached Galesburg?
A. A newspaper report. B. A telegram from Sam.
C. A letter sent by Sam from Galesburg. D. A telephone call from Sam.
Q90. Which common theme is reflected in all three chapters?
A. Importance of technology
B. Love for adventure and sports
C. Human emotions, memories, and the value of relationships
D. Scientific discoveries and inventions
CURRENT AFFAIRS | Q.91 – 100 | 10 Marks
Q91. Which country assumed the Presidency of the G20 for the year 2025?
(A) India (B) Brazil (C) South Africa (D) Indonesia
Q92. The recently launched National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) primarily aims to:
(A) Increase food grain production
(B) Secure the supply of critical minerals for strategic industries
(C) Promote organic farming
(D) Expand India's tourism sector
Q93. The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is intended to strengthen:
(A) Defence cooperation only (B) Trade and transport connectivity
(C) Cultural exchanges (D) Nuclear energy production
Q94. Which Indian space mission is designed to demonstrate autonomous docking technology in space?
(A) Chandrayaan-4 (B) Gaganyaan (C) SpaDeX (D) Aditya-L2
Q95. The World Economic Outlook Report, frequently referred to in economic current affairs, is published by:
(A) World Bank (B) IMF (C) WTO (D) OECD
Q96. The National Quantum Mission focuses on the development of:
(A) Renewable energy technologies (B) Quantum computing and quantum communication (C) Electric vehicles (D) High-speed rail networks
Q97. FATF (Financial Action Task Force) primarily works to combat:
(A) Climate change (B) Global unemployment (C) Money laundering and terrorist financing (D) Cyber warfare
Q98. Which of the following organizations publishes the Human Development Index (HDI)?
(A) UNESCO (B) UNDP (C) WHO (D) UNICEF
Q99. India's Green Hydrogen Mission mainly aims to:
(A) Increase coal production
(B) Promote clean hydrogen as a sustainable fuel
(C) Develop nuclear power plants
(D) Expand hydroelectric projects
Q100. Which international organization releases the Global Innovation Index (GII) every year?
(A) IMF (B) WIPO (C) WTO (D) World Bank
— All the Best! —
