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1. This question paper is divided into three parts — Part A (Chemistry, 25 Marks), Part B (Biology, 30 Marks) and Part C (Physics, 25 Marks).
2. Each part is further divided into four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (including objective-type and Assertion–Reason questions), Section 2 — Short Answer, Section 3 — Long Answer, and Section 4 — Case/Source-based integrated question.
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions across the paper. Attempt only one option where a choice is given.
5. Write balanced chemical equations wherever applicable.
6. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
PART A — CHEMISTRY (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q8
Q1. Name the type of reaction that occurs when quicklime reacts with water. 1
Q2. Write the chemical formula of gypsum. 1
Q3. State the approximate pH of gastric juice in the human stomach. 1
Q4. Name the gas evolved at the cathode during the electrolysis of water. 1
Q5. Name the first member of the homologous series of alkanes. 1
Q6. Identify the type of reaction: BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl. 1
Q7.Assertion (A): Anodising is a process used to increase the corrosion resistance of aluminium. Reason (R): Anodising forms a thicker, protective layer of aluminium oxide on the surface of the metal. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Q8.Assertion (A): A solution turns blue litmus red. Reason (R): The solution must be basic in nature. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q9 to Q12
Q9. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid, and state the type of reaction. 2
Q10. What are alloys? Why are they used instead of pure metals in many applications? Give one example. 2
Q11. Explain, with an example, why a decomposition reaction is considered the opposite of a combination reaction. 2
— OR —
State any two properties of ionic compounds. 2
Q12. Give the names and structural formulae of the first two members of the homologous series of alcohols. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q13
Q13. (a) Explain, with balanced equations, how sodium hydroxide reacts with (i) zinc metal, and (ii) an acid. (3)
(b) State the type of oxide zinc oxide is, and explain your answer. (2)5
— OR —
(a) Describe, with the help of an activity, how you would test for the presence of carbon dioxide gas produced during a chemical reaction. (3)
(b) Write the balanced equation for the reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid. (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q14
Q14. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Different metals react with water and dilute acids at different rates, reflecting their relative reactivity. Highly reactive metals like sodium react vigorously even with cold water, releasing hydrogen gas so rapidly that the reaction can be dangerous. Moderately reactive metals like iron react with steam but not with cold water. Some metals, like gold and silver, do not react with water or dilute acids at all, which is why they are often called "noble metals" and are commonly used in jewellery, as they resist corrosion and tarnishing over long periods.
14.1 Name a metal that reacts vigorously with cold water, according to the passage. (1)
14.2 Why are gold and silver preferred for making jewellery? (1)
14.3 Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of iron with steam. (2)
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PART B — BIOLOGY (30 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q15 to Q22
Q15. Name the process by which plants lose excess water in the form of vapour. 1
Q16. Define the term "hormone". 1
Q17. Name the largest gland in the human body. 1
Q18. What is the term for asexual reproduction through spore formation, as seen in Rhizopus? 1
Q19. A cross is made between a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) and a homozygous dwarf plant (tt). What ratio of tall to dwarf plants is expected in the offspring? 1
Q20. Name one measure to control water pollution. 1
Q21.Assertion (A): Plants show tropic movements in response to stimuli such as light and gravity. Reason (R): These movements involve growth of a particular part of the plant towards or away from the stimulus. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Q22.Assertion (A): The number of chromosomes in human sperm and egg cells is half that found in other body cells. Reason (R): Gametes are formed by a special type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q23 to Q26
Q23. What is the role of the pancreas in the human digestive system? 2
Q24. Differentiate between arteries and veins, giving one structural difference. 2
— OR —
Explain why gas exchange in plants occurs mainly through stomata and lenticels. 2
Q25. What is meant by "implantation" in human reproduction? 2
Q26. State two differences between self-pollination and cross-pollination. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks each) — Q27 to Q28
Q27. (a) With a labelled diagram, describe the structure of the human kidney and its associated structures (ureter, bladder). (3)
(b) What is dialysis, and when is it needed? (2)5
— OR —
(a) Explain the process of photosynthesis, mentioning the raw materials required and the site where it occurs. (3)
(b) Why is photosynthesis considered vital for life on Earth? (2)
Q28. (a) Describe the process of binary fission in Amoeba, with a simple diagram. (3)
(b) State two advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction for a species. (2)5
— OR —
(a) Explain the hormonal control of puberty in humans, mentioning the changes seen in males and females. (3)
(b) What is "adolescence"? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q29
Q29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
India is home to a rich diversity of plant and animal species, many of which are found nowhere else in the world. To protect this biodiversity, the government has established a network of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves across the country. These protected areas provide a safe habitat for endangered species and help maintain ecological balance. However, human activities such as poaching, habitat destruction and pollution continue to threaten many species, making conservation efforts increasingly important.
29.1 Name two types of protected areas mentioned in the passage. (1)
29.2 Why are protected areas important for endangered species? (1)
29.3 State two human activities, mentioned in the passage, that threaten biodiversity, and suggest one measure to address them. (2)
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PART C — PHYSICS (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q30 to Q37
Q30. Define the "focal length" of a spherical mirror. 1
Q31. Name the type of lens that always forms a virtual image of an object. 1
Q32. What is the least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye? 1
Q33. State the relationship between resistance and temperature for most metallic conductors. 1
Q34. Calculate the resistance of a conductor if a current of 4 A flows through it when 12 V is applied across it. 1
Q35. Name the material commonly used to make the core of an electromagnet. 1
Q36.Assertion (A): A convex lens always forms a magnified image. Reason (R): The nature and size of the image formed by a convex lens depend on the position of the object relative to the lens. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Q37.Assertion (A): The fuse wire in a household circuit is connected in series with the live wire. Reason (R): This ensures that the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit if excess current flows, protecting the appliances. 1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q38 to Q41
Q38. Define "refraction" of light. State one everyday example of refraction. 2
Q39. A student obtains a sharp image of a distant tree on a screen using a lens. What should the student measure to determine the focal length of the lens? Explain briefly. 2
— OR —
Explain why a doctor uses a concave mirror to examine a patient's ear, eye or throat. 2
Q40. An electric heater draws a current of 5 A when connected to a 220 V supply. Calculate its power. 2
Q41. State two differences between the magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying conductor and that due to a circular current-carrying loop. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q42
Q42. (a) With a ray diagram, show the image formed by a convex mirror when the object is placed at a finite distance in front of it. State the nature of the image. (3)
(b) An object is placed 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the position, nature and magnification of the image formed. (2)5
— OR —
(a) Draw the circuit diagram for a series combination of a cell, ammeter, resistor and plug key, with a voltmeter connected across the resistor. (2)
(b) A copper wire has a resistance of 8 Ω. It is melted and drawn into a wire of half its original length. Find the new resistance, assuming the volume remains constant. (3)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q43
Q43. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
In household electric circuits, all appliances are connected in parallel to the main supply line, so that each appliance can be operated independently, and if one appliance fails, others continue to function normally. Each circuit also has an earth wire connected to the metallic body of appliances, providing a low-resistance path for current to flow safely into the ground in case of a fault, protecting users from electric shocks. The overall design ensures that the total current drawn does not exceed the safe limit set by the circuit's fuse or circuit breaker.
43.1 Why are household appliances connected in parallel rather than in series? (1)
43.2 What is the purpose of the earth wire in a household circuit? (1)
43.3 A room has three bulbs of 60 W each, all rated for 220 V and connected in parallel. Calculate the total current drawn from the supply when all three bulbs are switched on. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Competency Analysis
1. Part-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
Part
Section 1 (VSA + AR)
Section 2 (SA)
Section 3 (LA)
Section 4 (Case-based)
Total
A — Chemistry
8 × 1 = 8
4 × 2 = 8
1 × 5 = 5
1 × 4 = 4
25
B — Biology
8 × 1 = 8
4 × 2 = 8
2 × 5 = 10
1 × 4 = 4
30
C — Physics
8 × 1 = 8
4 × 2 = 8
1 × 5 = 5
1 × 4 = 4
25
Total
24
24
20
12
80
2. Unit-wise Weightage (as per given specification)
Unit
Topic Focus
Marks
Unit I — Chemical Substances
Chemical reactions/equations, acids/bases/salts, metals & non-metals, carbon compounds
25
Unit II — World of Living
Life processes, control & coordination, reproduction, heredity
25
Unit V — Natural Resources
Ecosystems, energy flow, waste management
5
Unit III — Natural Phenomena
Reflection/refraction, human eye and its defects
12
Unit IV — Effects of Current
Ohm's law, resistance, magnetic effects (excluding motor/generator/EMI)
Part A: Internal choice provided in Q12 (SA) and Q13 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
Part B: Internal choice provided in Q24 (SA), Q27 (LA) and Q28 (LA) — 3 of 7 non-VSA questions (~43%, within the "approximately one-third" range for the paper overall).
Part C: Internal choice provided in Q39 (SA) and Q42 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
5. Exclusions Confirmed
✔ No questions from Periodic Classification of Elements.
✔ No questions from Evolution (speciation, fossils) — only Heredity concepts included.
✔ No questions on Electric Motor, Electromagnetic Induction, or Electric Generator.
✔ No content drawn from "Do You Know" / informational boxes in NCERT textbooks.
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — CHEMISTRY
Q1. Combination reaction (exothermic).
Q2. CaSO₄·2H₂O.
Q3. Approximately pH 1.5–2 (highly acidic).
Q4. Hydrogen gas.
Q5. Methane (CH₄).
Q6. Double displacement (precipitation) reaction.
Q7. (A)
Q8. (C) — Assertion is true (an acidic solution turns blue litmus red), but the Reason is false, since it is acidic (not basic) solutions that turn blue litmus red.
Q9. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂; this is a displacement reaction.
Q10. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals (or a metal and a non-metal); they are used because they often have improved properties like greater strength, hardness or resistance to corrosion compared to pure metals — e.g., stainless steel (iron + chromium + nickel).
Q11. In a combination reaction, two or more substances combine to form one product (e.g., CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂); in a decomposition reaction, one substance breaks down into two or more simpler products (e.g., CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂) — the reverse process. OR: Ionic compounds are generally solid and hard, have high melting/boiling points, and conduct electricity when dissolved in water or in the molten state.
Q12. Methanol, CH₃OH; Ethanol, C₂H₅OH.
Q13. (a) (i) Zn + 2NaOH → Na₂ZnO₂ + H₂; (ii) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O. (b) Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide, since it reacts with both acids and bases to form salt and water. OR: Passing the gas through freshly prepared lime water — it turns milky, confirming CO₂; CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂.
Q14. (i) Sodium. (ii) They are "noble metals" that resist corrosion and tarnishing, retaining their shine over long periods. (iii) 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂.
PART B — BIOLOGY
Q15. Transpiration.
Q16. A hormone is a chemical substance, secreted by an endocrine gland directly into the bloodstream, which regulates specific physiological processes in the body.
Q17. Liver.
Q18. Sporulation.
Q19. 1 : 1 (Tt : tt).
Q20. Treating sewage/industrial waste before releasing it into water bodies (any correct measure).
Q21. (A) Q22. (A)
Q23. The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice, containing enzymes (like trypsin and lipase) that help digest proteins and fats in the small intestine; it also secretes insulin.
Q24. Arteries have thick, elastic walls and carry blood away from the heart (usually oxygenated, at high pressure); veins have thinner walls with valves and carry blood towards the heart (usually deoxygenated, at low pressure). OR: Stomata and lenticels are small pores/openings on leaves and stems respectively, allowing efficient diffusion of gases (O₂/CO₂) between the plant tissue and atmosphere.
Q25. Implantation is the attachment of the developing embryo to the wall of the uterus, where it continues to grow and receive nourishment.
Q26. Self-pollination occurs within the same flower/plant, leading to less genetic variation, and does not require a pollinating agent; cross-pollination occurs between different plants, usually via agents like wind or insects, and produces more genetic variation.
Q27. Kidney diagram with ureter, urinary bladder, urethra; dialysis is an artificial process of filtering waste from the blood, used when the kidneys fail to function adequately. OR: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O →(sunlight, chlorophyll)→ C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂; occurs in chloroplasts of leaf cells; photosynthesis is vital as it is the primary source of food and oxygen for almost all life on Earth.
Q28. In binary fission, the Amoeba's nucleus divides first, followed by division of the cytoplasm, producing two daughter cells. Sexual reproduction introduces genetic variation, helping species adapt to changing environments and increasing survival chances against diseases. OR: Rising levels of testosterone (males) and oestrogen (females) trigger secondary sexual characteristics; adolescence is the period of life between childhood and adulthood, when the body undergoes puberty-related changes.
Q29. (i) National parks and wildlife sanctuaries (or biosphere reserves). (ii) They provide a safe, protected habitat, reducing threats from hunting/habitat loss, helping endangered species survive and reproduce. (iii) Poaching and habitat destruction; measures — stricter law enforcement/anti-poaching patrols and habitat restoration programmes.
PART C — PHYSICS
Q30. The distance between the pole and the principal focus of a spherical mirror is called its focal length.
Q31. Concave lens.
Q32. 25 cm.
Q33. Resistance increases as temperature increases, for most metallic conductors.
Q34. R = V/I = 12/4 = 3 Ω.
Q35. Soft iron.
Q36. (D) — Assertion is false (a convex lens can also form a diminished image, e.g., when the object is beyond 2F₁); Reason is true.
Q37. (A)
Q38. The bending of light as it passes from one transparent medium to another of different optical density is called refraction; example — a pencil appears bent when partly dipped in water.
Q39. The student should measure the distance between the lens and the screen (where the sharp image forms), since for a distant object this distance approximately equals the focal length of the lens. OR: A concave mirror, when held close to the object, produces an enlarged, virtual image, allowing the doctor to see small body parts (like the ear canal) more clearly.
Q40. P = VI = 220 × 5 = 1100 W.
Q41. Around a straight conductor, field lines are concentric circles of increasing size with distance; around a circular loop, field lines are circular near the wire but become nearly straight and parallel near the centre of the loop, resembling a bar magnet's field.
Q42. (a) Convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, diminished image, located between the pole and focus. (b) Using lens formula 1/f=1/v−1/u with f=10, u=−15: v=30 cm; image is real, inverted, magnified (m=v/u=−2). OR: Standard series Ohm's-law circuit diagram; new resistance after halving length (constant volume, so area doubles) = original/4 = 2 Ω.
Q43. (i) So each appliance gets the full supply voltage and works independently — a fault in one does not affect the others. (ii) It provides a safe path for leakage current to flow to the ground, preventing electric shocks to the user. (iii) Current per bulb = 60/220 ≈ 0.27 A; total current for 3 bulbs in parallel ≈ 3 × 0.27 ≈ 0.82 A.
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