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CBSE PRACTICE PAPER 2026–27 · ECONOMICS (SET – 2)
General Instructions
- This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory. (Theory : 80 marks; Project : 20 marks is assessed separately.)
- The paper is divided into two sections : Section A – Introductory Macroeconomics (40 marks) and Section B – Indian Economic Development (40 marks).
- Q. 1–10 (Section A) and Q. 18–27 (Section B) are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each. Q. 9, 10 are Assertion–Reason questions.
- Q. 11, 12 (Section A) and Q. 28, 29 (Section B) are short answer questions of 3 marks each. Answer in about 60 words.
- Q. 13–15 (Section A) and Q. 30–32 (Section B) are short answer / case-based questions of 4 marks each. Answer in about 80 words.
- Q. 16, 17 (Section A) and Q. 33, 34 (Section B) are long answer questions of 6 marks each. Answer in about 120 words.
- Internal choice (OR) is provided in some questions. Use of a calculator is not permitted. Show the working in numerical questions.
- The paper follows the CBSE 2025–26 design : typology 40% remembering and understanding, 30% applying, 30% analysing, evaluating and creating. The answer key with the marking scheme is given at the end of this paper.
SECTION A — INTRODUCTORY MACROECONOMICS (40 Marks)
Q. 1 to Q. 8 : Multiple Choice Questions (choose the correct option)
1. In an economy, GNP at market price is ₹ 1,000 crore, net factor income from abroad is ₹ 20 crore and net indirect taxes are ₹ 80 crore. The value of GDP at factor cost is
(a) ₹ 1,020 crore(b) ₹ 940 crore(c) ₹ 900 crore(d) ₹ 980 crore
2. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows money from the commercial banks for a short period is called the
(a) reverse repo rate(b) repo rate(c) bank rate(d) statutory liquidity ratio
3. Which of the following is included in the money supply M1?
(a) Time deposits of commercial banks(b) Savings deposits with the post office(c) Treasury bills(d) Demand deposits of commercial banks
4. The marginal propensity to consume is 0.6. If planned investment falls by ₹ 80 crore, the national income will fall by
(a) ₹ 48 crore(b) ₹ 200 crore(c) ₹ 320 crore(d) ₹ 133 crore
5. In an economy, consumption is ₹ 450 crore at the income of ₹ 500 crore and ₹ 600 crore at the income of ₹ 700 crore. The marginal propensity to consume is
(a) 0.9(b) 0.86(c) 0.25(d) 0.75
6. Which of the following is a revenue expenditure of the government?
(a) Construction of a bridge(b) Loans given to state governments(c) Payment of salaries to government employees(d) Purchase of shares of a public sector company
7. Which of the following is an example of an accommodating transaction in the balance of payments?
(a) Drawing down of foreign exchange reserves(b) Export of goods(c) Foreign direct investment inflow(d) Receipt of remittances
8. The saving function of an economy is S = −200 + 0.2Y. The break-even level of income is
(a) ₹ 200(b) ₹ 1,000(c) ₹ 800(d) ₹ 1,200
Q. 9 and Q. 10 : Assertion–Reason Questions
Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
9. Assertion (A): A progressive tax system helps in reducing inequalities in income.
Reason (R): In a progressive tax system, the tax rate falls as the income of the taxpayer rises.
Reason (R): In a progressive tax system, the tax rate falls as the income of the taxpayer rises.
10. Assertion (A): Depreciation of the domestic currency makes the exports of the country cheaper for foreign buyers.
Reason (R): When the domestic currency depreciates, a unit of foreign currency buys more units of the domestic currency.
Reason (R): When the domestic currency depreciates, a unit of foreign currency buys more units of the domestic currency.
11. Distinguish between stock and flow variables. Give one example of each.(3)
12. Explain the meaning of the investment multiplier and the relationship between the marginal propensity to consume and the multiplier.(3)
OR
Show that the average propensity to consume and the average propensity to save always add up to one.
13. Explain any four functions of commercial banks.(4)
OR
Explain any four difficulties of the barter system of exchange.
14. Giving reasons, classify each of the following as a revenue receipt, a capital receipt, a revenue expenditure or a capital expenditure : (i) Receipts from the sale of shares of a public sector company; (ii) Interest paid on the borrowings of the government; (iii) Purchase of a new aircraft for the Air Force; (iv) Dividend received from a public sector company.(4)
15. Read the case and answer the questions.
During a year, the exchange rate of the rupee changed from ₹ 80 to ₹ 84 per US dollar. An Indian software firm exported services worth $ 5 million in that year, and an oil-importing firm bought crude oil worth $ 2 million.
During a year, the exchange rate of the rupee changed from ₹ 80 to ₹ 84 per US dollar. An Indian software firm exported services worth $ 5 million in that year, and an oil-importing firm bought crude oil worth $ 2 million.
(i) Calculate the rupee value of the exports of the software firm before and after the change. (1)
(ii) Calculate the additional rupee amount that the oil-importing firm has to pay for its imports. (1)
(iii) State the effect of the change on the exports and imports of the country in general. (1)
(iv) Is the depreciation of the rupee always beneficial for the economy? Give one reason. (1)
(4)16. From the following data (₹ crore) calculate (i) gross domestic product at market price, (ii) national income and (iii) net domestic capital formation :
(6)
| Item | ₹ crore |
|---|---|
| Private final consumption expenditure | 6,000 |
| Government final consumption expenditure | 1,200 |
| Gross fixed capital formation | 1,500 |
| Change in stocks | 100 |
| Exports | 400 |
| Imports | 500 |
| Consumption of fixed capital | 300 |
| Net indirect taxes | 400 |
| Net factor income from abroad | (−) 100 |
OR
From the following data (₹ crore) calculate (i) net domestic product at factor cost, (ii) gross domestic product at market price and (iii) national income :
| Item | ₹ crore |
|---|---|
| Wages and salaries | 2,000 |
| Employers’ contribution to social security schemes | 200 |
| Rent | 300 |
| Interest | 250 |
| Royalty | 50 |
| Profit | 800 |
| Mixed income of self-employed | 1,200 |
| Consumption of fixed capital | 350 |
| Net indirect taxes | 300 |
| Net factor income from abroad | (−) 40 |
17. In an economy, the saving function is S = −100 + 0.25Y and investment is ₹ 300 crore. (i) Find the equilibrium level of income. (ii) If investment falls to ₹ 200 crore, find the new equilibrium income and the fall in income. (iii) Calculate the average propensity to consume at the original equilibrium and explain why the fall in income is four times the fall in investment.(6)
OR
In an economy, the consumption function is C = 100 + 0.8Y and investment is ₹ 900 crore. The full employment level of income is ₹ 4,500 crore. (i) Find the equilibrium level of income. (ii) Identify the type of gap that exists and calculate its size. (iii) Suggest one fiscal and one monetary measure to correct the gap.
SECTION B — INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT (40 Marks)
Q. 18 to Q. 27 : Multiple Choice Questions (choose the correct option)
18. Which of the following was a feature of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
(a) Abolition of licensing for all industries(b) Complete privatisation of heavy industries(c) Free import of all consumer goods(d) Division of industries into three categories : Schedule A, Schedule B and Schedule C
19. The Green Revolution in India mainly involved the use of
(a) high-yielding variety seeds along with fertilisers and assured irrigation(b) large-scale mechanisation without chemical inputs(c) land ceiling and redistribution of land(d) cooperative marketing of all crops
20. A farmer in Punjab has no work for four months in a year, between the sowing and the harvesting of the crops. This type of unemployment is
(a) disguised unemployment(b) structural unemployment(c) seasonal unemployment(d) frictional unemployment
21. Which of the following is a feature of organic farming?
(a) Use of chemical fertilisers and hybrid seeds(b) Avoidance of chemical fertilisers and pesticides(c) Growing only a single crop on the land(d) Heavy use of chemical weedicides
22. Which of the following is an example of social infrastructure?
(a) Schools and hospitals(b) Roads and railways(c) Power plants(d) Telecommunication networks
23. In a town of 1,000 persons, 400 persons are working, 50 persons are seeking work and the rest are neither working nor seeking work. The unemployment rate is
(a) 5%(b) 12.5%(c) 50%(d) 11.1%
24. Which of the following is a source of non-institutional credit in rural areas?
(a) Commercial banks(b) Regional rural banks(c) Moneylenders(d) Cooperative societies
25. During a decade, the GDP of a country grew at 6.5% per year while employment grew at only 1% per year. This pattern of growth is best described as
(a) employment-led growth(b) jobless growth(c) inclusive growth(d) sustainable growth
26. Between 2000 and 2020, the per capita income of a state doubled, but its infant mortality rate remained almost unchanged. This shows that
(a) health is not related to income(b) infant mortality is the only indicator of development(c) the state has achieved sustainable development(d) economic growth does not automatically lead to human development
27. In which year did Pakistan introduce economic reforms (liberalisation)?
(a) 1978(b) 1991(c) 1988(d) 1999
28. Distinguish between human capital and human development on any three points.(3)
29. Explain any three features of the “Great Leap Forward” campaign of China.(3)
OR
State any three differences between the development strategies of India and China after their reforms.
30. A state government fixes a ceiling of 10 hectares of land per family. A landlord owns 35 hectares. Explain how the policy of land ceiling aims to reduce inequality, and state any two reasons why the policy could not be fully successful.(4)
31. A farmer with two hectares of land grows only paddy and depends on the rains. Explain how (i) crop diversification and (ii) allied activities such as animal husbandry can raise his income.(4)
OR
Distinguish between the “push factors” and the “pull factors” of rural–urban migration, with one example of each.
32. Read the data and answer the questions.
The table gives illustrative data on the average annual growth rate of GDP (%) of three countries :
The table gives illustrative data on the average annual growth rate of GDP (%) of three countries :
| Period | Country X | Country Y | Country Z |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1981–90 | 5.5 | 6.3 | 9.8 |
| 1991–2000 | 6.3 | 4.0 | 10.4 |
| 2001–10 | 7.5 | 4.9 | 10.6 |
| 2011–20 | 6.6 | 4.4 | 7.0 |
(i) Which country had the highest average growth rate in 1991–2000? (1)
(ii) By how many percentage points did the growth rate of Country X exceed that of Country Y in 2001–10? (1)
(iii) Which country’s growth slowed down by the largest margin in 2011–20 compared with 2001–10? Support your answer with the data. (1)
(iv) Suggest one measure that Country Y can adopt to raise its growth rate. (1)
(4)33. Explain any three features of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 and any three reasons for giving importance to small-scale industries in India.(6)
OR
Explain any three achievements and any three failures of the Five-Year Plans during 1950–1990.
34. “Despite the expansion of rural banking, many farmers still depend on moneylenders.” Examine any three reasons for this and suggest any three measures to improve the access of farmers to institutional credit.(6)
OR
Evaluate the role of organic farming in sustainable agriculture with any three benefits and any three limitations.
ANSWER KEY & MARKING SCHEME · ECONOMICS PRACTICE PAPER (SET – 2)
Note for evaluators : Award marks for any other relevant and correct point or method. In numerical questions, give full credit for the correct answer with working; award part marks for correct steps even if the final answer is wrong.
SECTION A — Answer Key (Q. 1–10, 1 mark each)
| Q.1 | (c) | Q.2 | (a) | Q.3 | (d) | Q.4 | (b) | Q.5 | (d) |
| Q.6 | (c) | Q.7 | (a) | Q.8 | (b) | Q.9 | (c) | Q.10 | (a) |
Reasoning for Q.1–10. (1) GDPMP = GNPMP − NFIA = 1,000 − 20 = 980; GDPFC = 980 − 80 = ₹ 900 crore. (2) The rate at which the RBI borrows from banks is the reverse repo rate. (3) M1 = currency + demand deposits + other deposits with the RBI. (4) Multiplier = 1 ÷ (1 − 0.6) = 2.5; ΔY = 80 × 2.5 = ₹ 200 crore (fall). (5) MPC = ΔC ÷ ΔY = (600 − 450) ÷ (700 − 500) = 150 ÷ 200 = 0.75. (6) Salaries create no asset and do not reduce any liability ⇒ revenue expenditure. (7) Drawing down of reserves is done to settle the deficit ⇒ accommodating transaction. (8) S = 0 ⇒ −200 + 0.2Y = 0 ⇒ Y = 1,000. (9) (c) : A is true; R is false – in a progressive tax system the tax rate rises with income. (10) (a) : both true, and R explains A.
SECTION A — Marking Scheme (Q. 11–17)
11.
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Stock variable : a quantity measured at a point of time | 1 |
| Flow variable : a quantity measured over a period of time | 1 |
| Examples : stock – wealth / capital / money supply; flow – income / investment / exports | 1 |
12.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Investment multiplier : the ratio of the change in national income to the change in investment, K = ΔY ÷ ΔI | 1 |
| K = 1 ÷ (1 − MPC) = 1 ÷ MPS | 1 |
| Relationship : direct – the higher the MPC, the higher the value of the multiplier (e.g. MPC 0.8 ⇒ K = 5; MPC 0.5 ⇒ K = 2) | 1 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Income is either consumed or saved : Y = C + S | 1 |
| Dividing by Y : 1 = C/Y + S/Y ⇒ APC + APS = 1 | 1 |
| Hence if APC rises, APS must fall by the same amount; when saving is zero, APC = 1 | 1 |
13.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any four functions (1 mark each, name + explanation) : (1) Accepting deposits (savings, current, fixed); (2) Granting loans and advances; (3) Credit creation; (4) Agency functions – collection of cheques, payment of bills, remittance of funds; (5) General utility services – lockers, credit/debit cards, foreign exchange | 4 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any four difficulties (1 mark each) : (1) Lack of double coincidence of wants; (2) Lack of a common measure of value; (3) Difficulty in storing value; (4) Difficulty in deferred payments; (5) Difficulty in the division of some goods (indivisibility) | 4 |
14.
Classification (½) + reason (½) for each.
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| (i) Capital receipt – the sale of shares reduces the assets of the government | 1 |
| (ii) Revenue expenditure – it neither creates an asset nor reduces a liability | 1 |
| (iii) Capital expenditure – it creates a physical asset of the government | 1 |
| (iv) Revenue receipt – it neither creates a liability nor reduces an asset | 1 |
15.
(i) 1 mark. (ii) 1 mark.
(iii) (1) Depreciation makes exports cheaper for foreigners and imports costlier for residents, so exports tend to rise and imports to fall. (iv) (1) Not always – it raises the cost of imported inputs (inflation), increases the burden of repaying foreign debt, and its benefit depends on the elasticity of demand for exports and imports. (any one reason)
| Item | Working | Value |
|---|---|---|
| (i) Exports, before | $ 5 million × ₹ 80 | ₹ 400 million |
| Exports, after | $ 5 million × ₹ 84 | ₹ 420 million (+ ₹ 20 million) |
| (ii) Oil imports, before | $ 2 million × ₹ 80 | ₹ 160 million |
| Oil imports, after | $ 2 million × ₹ 84 | ₹ 168 million |
| Additional payment | 168 − 160 | ₹ 8 million |
(iii) (1) Depreciation makes exports cheaper for foreigners and imports costlier for residents, so exports tend to rise and imports to fall. (iv) (1) Not always – it raises the cost of imported inputs (inflation), increases the burden of repaying foreign debt, and its benefit depends on the elasticity of demand for exports and imports. (any one reason)
16.
(2 marks each : 1 for the method + 1 for the answer)
OR
(2 marks each)
| Step | Working | ₹ crore |
|---|---|---|
| (i) GDP at market price | 6,000 + 1,200 + (1,500 + 100) + (400 − 500) | 8,700 |
| NDP at market price | 8,700 − 300 | 8,400 |
| NNP at market price | 8,400 + (−100) | 8,300 |
| (ii) National income (NNP at factor cost) | 8,300 − 400 | 7,900 |
| Gross domestic capital formation | 1,500 + 100 | 1,600 |
| (iii) Net domestic capital formation | 1,600 − 300 | 1,300 |
OR
| Step | Working | ₹ crore |
|---|---|---|
| Compensation of employees | 2,000 + 200 | 2,200 |
| Operating surplus | 300 + 250 + 50 + 800 | 1,400 |
| Mixed income | 1,200 | |
| (i) NDP at factor cost | 2,200 + 1,400 + 1,200 | 4,800 |
| (ii) GDP at market price | 4,800 + 350 + 300 | 5,450 |
| (iii) National income | 4,800 + (−40) | 4,760 |
17.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| (i) At equilibrium S = I ⇒ −100 + 0.25Y = 300 ⇒ Y = ₹ 1,600 crore | 2 |
| (ii) New equilibrium : −100 + 0.25Y = 200 ⇒ Y = ₹ 1,200 crore; fall in income = ₹ 400 crore | 2 |
| (iii) C = Y − S = 1,600 − 300 = 1,300; APC = 1,300 ÷ 1,600 = 0.81 | 1 |
| MPS = 0.25 ⇒ multiplier = 1 ÷ 0.25 = 4; ΔY = 100 × 4 = 400. The fall in investment is a fall in the income of others, who reduce their consumption again and again – the multiplier effect | 1 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| (i) Y = 100 + 0.8Y + 900 ⇒ 0.2Y = 1,000 ⇒ Y = ₹ 5,000 crore | 2 |
| (ii) At the full employment income, AD = 100 + 0.8 × 4,500 + 900 = 4,600 > 4,500 ⇒ inflationary gap (excess demand) of ₹ 100 crore | 2 |
| (iii) Fiscal : cut government spending / raise taxes; Monetary : raise the repo rate and the CRR / sell securities (any one of each) | 2 |
SECTION B — Answer Key (Q. 18–27, 1 mark each)
| Q.18 | (d) | Q.19 | (a) | Q.20 | (c) | Q.21 | (b) | Q.22 | (a) |
| Q.23 | (d) | Q.24 | (c) | Q.25 | (b) | Q.26 | (d) | Q.27 | (c) |
Reasoning for Q.18–27. (18) The IPR 1956 divided industries into Schedule A (public sector), Schedule B (mixed) and Schedule C (private sector). (19) The Green Revolution used HYV seeds, fertilisers and irrigation. (20) No work in the gap between sowing and harvesting ⇒ seasonal unemployment. (21) Organic farming avoids chemical inputs. (22) Schools and hospitals are social infrastructure. (23) Labour force = 400 + 50 = 450; unemployment rate = 50 ÷ 450 × 100 = 11.1%. (24) Moneylenders are a non-institutional source. (25) GDP growth much faster than employment growth ⇒ jobless growth. (26) Income doubled but the health indicator did not improve ⇒ growth does not automatically ensure human development. (27) Pakistan began reforms in 1988.
SECTION B — Marking Scheme (Q. 28–34)
28.
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any three points of distinction (1 mark each) : Human capital treats education and health as a means of raising productivity; human development treats them as ends in themselves. Human capital focuses on the output/return; human development focuses on the wider well-being and choices of the people. Human capital looks at the human being as a resource; human development looks at the human being as the goal of development. Human development is wider and includes human capital | 3 |
29.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any three features (1 mark each) : (1) A campaign launched in 1958 to industrialise the country on a massive scale; (2) People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards; (3) In rural areas, communes were started and farming was done collectively; (4) The campaign led to a fall in agricultural output and a famine because of the neglect of farming | 3 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any three differences (1 mark each) : India – democratic planning, China – centralised planning; India – services-led growth, China – manufacturing/export-led growth; India started reforms in 1991, China in 1978; China gave stress to rural industries and land reforms; different population control policies | 3 |
30.
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Land ceiling fixes the maximum land that a person can own; the surplus land (25 hectares) is taken over and distributed among the landless and small farmers, which reduces the concentration of land ownership and inequality | 2 |
| Reasons for the limited success (any two, 1 mark each) : landlords evaded by transferring land in the names of relatives or servants; loopholes in the laws; weak political will and administration; delay and litigation in the courts | 2 |
31.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| (i) Crop diversification – shifting to a mix of crops (pulses, vegetables, cash crops) reduces dependence on the rains and a single crop, spreads the risk and raises income | 2 |
| (ii) Allied activities – animal husbandry (dairy), poultry or fisheries provide regular income and employment during the lean period, and use the family labour | 2 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Push factors : unfavourable conditions in the village that force the people to leave – e.g. unemployment, low farm income, poverty | 2 |
| Pull factors : attractions of the city – e.g. better jobs, higher wages, education and health facilities | 2 |
32.
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| (i) Country Z (10.4%) | 1 |
| (ii) 7.5 − 4.9 = 2.6 percentage points | 1 |
| (iii) Country Z – its growth fell from 10.6% to 7.0%, a fall of 3.6 percentage points, whereas the fall was 0.9 for X and 0.5 for Y | 1 |
| (iv) Any one : raise investment in infrastructure and human capital; improve the productivity of agriculture; promote industry and exports; reform the policies | 1 |
33.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Features of the IPR 1956 (any three, 1 mark each) : (1) Industries were classified into three schedules – Schedule A (17 industries exclusively for the public sector), Schedule B (state-owned but private firms could supplement) and Schedule C (private sector); (2) Industrial licensing was required; (3) Public sector given the commanding heights; (4) Promotion of small-scale industries | 3 |
| Importance of SSIs (any three, 1 mark each) : labour-intensive and generate employment; use local resources; promote the regional dispersal of industry; reduce the concentration of economic power; promote the use of indigenous technology | 3 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Achievements (any three, 1 mark each) : diversified industrial base; self-sufficiency in food grains; growth of the public sector; the base for science and technology; land reforms in some states | 3 |
| Failures (any three, 1 mark each) : persistence of poverty; slow growth (“Hindu rate of growth”); inefficiency of public sector units; regional disparities; excess regulation and the licence–permit raj | 3 |
34.
OR
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Any three reasons (1 mark each) : (1) Limited reach of banks in remote villages; (2) Collateral and documentation requirements; (3) Banks give mainly production credit, while farmers also need credit for consumption and social needs; (4) Moneylenders give timely and informal credit without paperwork; (5) Lack of awareness among the farmers | 3 |
| Any three measures (1 mark each) : expand rural bank branches; promote SHGs and microfinance; simplify the procedure (Kisan Credit Card); give timely credit and crop insurance; financial literacy | 3 |
| Value points | Marks |
|---|---|
| Benefits (any three, 1 mark each) : environment-friendly and protects soil health; higher price for the produce; healthier food; employment (labour-intensive); reduces the dependence on costly chemical inputs | 3 |
| Limitations (any three, 1 mark each) : lower yields initially; high cost of certification; lack of awareness; difficulty in marketing and shorter shelf life; higher prices for consumers | 3 |
DESIGN OF THE PAPER — Unit-wise Weightage and Typology (as per CBSE 2025–26)
| Part / Unit | Marks (CBSE) | Marks in this paper | Questions |
|---|---|---|---|
| Part A – National Income and Related Aggregates | 10 | 10 | Q.1, 11, 16 |
| Money and Banking | 6 | 6 | Q.2, 3, 13 |
| Determination of Income and Employment | 12 | 12 | Q.4, 5, 8, 12, 17 |
| Government Budget and the Economy | 6 | 6 | Q.6, 9, 14 |
| Balance of Payments | 6 | 6 | Q.7, 10, 15 |
| Total – Part A | 40 | 40 | |
| Part B – Development Experience (1947–90) and Economic Reforms since 1991 | 12 | 12 | Q.18, 19, 30, 33 |
| Current Challenges facing Indian Economy | 20 | 20 | Q.20–26, 28, 31, 34 |
| Development Experience of India – A Comparison with Neighbours | 8 | 8 | Q.27, 29, 32 |
| Total – Part B | 40 | 40 | |
| Grand total | 80 | 80 |
| Typology of questions | Marks (CBSE) | Marks in this paper | Questions |
|---|---|---|---|
| Remembering and Understanding | 32 (40%) | 32 | Q.2, 3, 6, 7, 11, 12, 13, 18, 19, 21, 22, 24, 27, 28, 29, 33 |
| Applying | 24 (30%) | 24 | Q.1, 4, 5, 8, 14, 16, 20, 23, 30, 31 |
| Analysing, Evaluating and Creating | 24 (30%) | 24 | Q.9, 10, 15, 17, 25, 26, 32, 34 |
| Total | 80 (100%) | 80 |
