www.careerinformationportal.in
APNA CAREER PORTAL
www.careerinformationportal.in
CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 10 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into three parts — Part A (Chemistry, 25 Marks), Part B (Biology, 30 Marks) and Part C (Physics, 25 Marks).
2. Each part is further divided into four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (including objective-type and Assertion–Reason questions), Section 2 — Short Answer, Section 3 — Long Answer, and Section 4 — Case/Source-based integrated question.
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions across the paper. Attempt only one option where a choice is given.
4. Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
5. Write balanced chemical equations wherever applicable.
6. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
PART A — CHEMISTRY (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q8
Q1. Name the type of reaction in which a more reactive element takes the place of a less reactive element in a compound. 1
Q2. Write the chemical formula of caustic soda. 1
Q3. State the colour change observed when a few drops of phenolphthalein are added to a basic solution. 1
Q4. Name the functional group present in aldehydes. 1
Q5. Identify the substance that gets oxidised in the reaction: ZnO + C → Zn + CO. 1
Q6. Write the common name and chemical formula of washing soda. 1
Q7. Assertion (A): Copper vessels develop a green coating when exposed to moist air for a long time.
Reason (R): Copper reacts slowly with moisture, carbon dioxide, and oxygen present in air to form a green basic copper carbonate layer on its surface. 1
Reason (R): Copper reacts slowly with moisture, carbon dioxide, and oxygen present in air to form a green basic copper carbonate layer on its surface. 1
Q8. Assertion (A): Diamond does not conduct electricity, while graphite does.
Reason (R): In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms with no free electrons, whereas in graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to only three others, leaving one free electron per atom. 1
Reason (R): In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms with no free electrons, whereas in graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to only three others, leaving one free electron per atom. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q9 to Q12
Q9. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of iron with steam. State the type of reaction involved. 2
Q10. What is meant by a "precipitation reaction"? Give one example with a balanced chemical equation. 2
Q11. State any two reasons why gold and platinum are used for making jewellery rather than more reactive metals. 2
— OR —
Explain, with reason, why the decomposition of silver chloride in sunlight is considered a photochemical reaction. 2
Q12. Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne (C₂H₂), and state the type of bond present between the two carbon atoms. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q13
Q13. (a) Describe the process of obtaining metals of medium reactivity (like iron and zinc) from their oxides through reduction with carbon, with a suitable example. (3)
(b) Why must metal ores be first converted to oxides (through roasting or calcination) before reduction with carbon? (2) 5
(b) Why must metal ores be first converted to oxides (through roasting or calcination) before reduction with carbon? (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Define homologous series. State any two characteristic features of a homologous series with reference to alkanes. (3)
(b) Why does the melting and boiling point of carbon compounds in a homologous series generally increase with increasing molecular mass? (2)
(b) Why does the melting and boiling point of carbon compounds in a homologous series generally increase with increasing molecular mass? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q14
Q14. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Most metals occur in nature combined with other elements in the form of compounds called minerals, and a mineral from which a metal can be profitably extracted is called an ore. The method used to extract a metal from its ore depends largely on the metal's position in the reactivity series. Highly reactive metals require electrolytic reduction, moderately reactive metals are usually extracted by reduction with carbon, and the least reactive metals often occur in their free (native) state and require little or no chemical processing to obtain the pure metal.
14.1 Define the term "ore". (1)
14.2 Name one metal that is typically extracted by electrolytic reduction because of its high reactivity. (1)
14.3 Explain why the method of extraction of a metal depends on its position in the reactivity series. (2)
Page 1 of 5 | www.careerinformationportal.in
www.careerinformationportal.in
PART B — BIOLOGY (30 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q15 to Q22
Q15. Name the hormone secreted by the thyroid gland, and state the mineral required for its synthesis. 1
Q16. Define "tropic movement" in plants. 1
Q17. Name the process by which pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower. 1
Q18. What is the term used for the physical and chemical features that are transmitted from parents to offspring? 1
Q19. In pea plants, a cross between a plant with round, yellow seeds (RrYy) and a plant with wrinkled, green seeds (rryy) is called a: 1
Q20. Name one ozone-depleting substance commonly released from refrigerators and air-conditioners. 1
Q21. Assertion (A): Phloem tissue can transport food materials both upward and downward in a plant.
Reason (R): Unlike xylem, phloem transport of food (translocation) occurs using energy from ATP, and can move materials in the direction required by different parts of the plant. 1
Reason (R): Unlike xylem, phloem transport of food (translocation) occurs using energy from ATP, and can move materials in the direction required by different parts of the plant. 1
Q22. Assertion (A): A person who has undergone vasectomy can no longer produce sperm.
Reason (R): Vasectomy involves cutting and sealing the vas deferens, which blocks the passage of sperm from the testes but does not stop sperm production itself. 1
Reason (R): Vasectomy involves cutting and sealing the vas deferens, which blocks the passage of sperm from the testes but does not stop sperm production itself. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q23 to Q26
Q23. Name the hormone responsible for regulating the level of calcium and phosphate in the blood, and name the gland that secretes it. 2
Q24. Differentiate between spore formation in Rhizopus (bread mould) and budding in Hydra as modes of asexual reproduction. 2
— OR —
Explain why a large number of sperms are produced by a healthy human male, even though only one is needed for fertilisation. 2
Q25. What is the role of the gastric glands present in the stomach lining during digestion? 2
Q26. Name any two sexually transmitted infections, and state one way of preventing their spread. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks each) — Q27 to Q28
Q27. (a) With reference to the human respiratory system, describe the pathway of air from the nostrils to the alveoli, naming each structure in sequence. (3)
(b) Why are alveoli well-suited for efficient exchange of gases? (2) 5
(b) Why are alveoli well-suited for efficient exchange of gases? (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the structure of the human excretory system, explaining the roles of the kidney, ureter, urinary bladder and urethra. (3)
(b) What is the role of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in regulating the water content of urine? (2)
(b) What is the role of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in regulating the water content of urine? (2)
Q28. (a) Explain how a cross between a pure-breeding round-seeded (RR) pea plant and a pure-breeding wrinkled-seeded (rr) pea plant results in an entirely round-seeded F1 generation. What does this tell us about dominance? (3)
(b) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, predict the phenotypic ratio expected in the F2 generation. (2) 5
(b) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, predict the phenotypic ratio expected in the F2 generation. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the mechanism of coordination between the nervous system and the endocrine system, using the example of the body's response to a sudden fright. (3)
(b) Why is hormonal (chemical) coordination generally slower but longer-lasting compared to nervous coordination? (2)
(b) Why is hormonal (chemical) coordination generally slower but longer-lasting compared to nervous coordination? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q29
Q29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
A stable ecosystem depends on a balanced flow of energy and nutrients between its living and non-living components. Producers, such as green plants, capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy, which is then passed on to various consumers through food chains. Decomposers, including bacteria and fungi, play an equally important role by breaking down the remains of dead organisms and waste products, releasing nutrients back into the soil so that they can be reused by producers, thereby completing the natural nutrient cycle.
29.1 Name the group of organisms that capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy. (1)
29.2 What would happen to the nutrient cycle if decomposers were absent from an ecosystem? (1)
29.3 Explain, with an example, how decomposers help maintain the fertility of soil. (2)
Page 2 of 5 | www.careerinformationportal.in
www.careerinformationportal.in
PART C — PHYSICS (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q30 to Q37
Q30. Define the "principal focus" of a concave mirror. 1
Q31. Name the phenomenon responsible for the sun being visible for a short while even after it has actually set below the horizon. 1
Q32. State one cause of presbyopia. 1
Q33. Write the formula relating electric power, resistance, and current. 1
Q34. Calculate the potential difference required to pass a current of 2 A through a resistor of 5 Ω. 1
Q35. Name the device used to detect the presence of a small current in a circuit, based on the deflection of a magnetic needle. 1
Q36. Assertion (A): A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image of an object, regardless of the object's distance from the mirror.
Reason (R): A convex mirror is a diverging mirror, so the reflected rays always appear to meet behind the mirror, no matter where the object is placed. 1
Reason (R): A convex mirror is a diverging mirror, so the reflected rays always appear to meet behind the mirror, no matter where the object is placed. 1
Q37. Assertion (A): Electrical appliances with a metallic body are always earthed.
Reason (R): Earthing provides a low-resistance path for leakage current to flow safely into the ground, protecting the user from electric shock in case of a fault. 1
Reason (R): Earthing provides a low-resistance path for leakage current to flow safely into the ground, protecting the user from electric shock in case of a fault. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q38 to Q41
Q38. Define "refractive index" of a medium with respect to air. 2
Q39. Why do we see a spectrum of colours when white light passes through a glass prism? 2
— OR —
An object is placed at the focus of a convex lens. State the nature and position of the image formed. 2
Q40. Calculate the electrical energy consumed by an appliance of power 1000 W used for 3 hours, expressing your answer in kilowatt-hours. 2
Q41. State any two factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop depends. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q42
Q42. (a) With a labelled ray diagram, explain the formation of the image of an object placed between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror. (3)
(b) An object is placed 15 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. Using the mirror formula, find the position of the image formed. (2) 5
(b) An object is placed 15 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. Using the mirror formula, find the position of the image formed. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) With the help of a circuit diagram, explain how you would experimentally verify Ohm's law in a laboratory. (3)
(b) A wire of resistance 6 Ω is bent in the form of a circle. Calculate the effective resistance between two points diametrically opposite to each other on the circle. (2)
(b) A wire of resistance 6 Ω is bent in the form of a circle. Calculate the effective resistance between two points diametrically opposite to each other on the circle. (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q43
Q43. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Every current-carrying conductor is surrounded by a magnetic field, whose strength and pattern depend on the shape of the conductor and the amount of current flowing through it. This basic relationship between electricity and magnetism, discovered by Hans Christian Oersted, forms the basis for a wide range of devices that use magnetic fields produced by electric currents, from simple electromagnets used to sort scrap metal, to more complex instruments used in hospitals and industries.
43.1 Who discovered that a current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it? (1)
43.2 Name one everyday device (other than a motor or generator) that makes use of an electromagnet. (1)
43.3 State two factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor depends. (2)
Page 3 of 5 | www.careerinformationportal.in
www.careerinformationportal.in
APNA CAREER PORTAL
www.careerinformationportal.in
Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Competency Analysis
1. Part-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
| Part | Section 1 (VSA + AR) | Section 2 (SA) | Section 3 (LA) | Section 4 (Case-based) | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A — Chemistry | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| B — Biology | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 2 × 5 = 10 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 30 |
| C — Physics | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| Total | 24 | 24 | 20 | 12 | 80 |
2. Unit-wise Weightage (as per given specification)
| Unit | Topic Focus | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Unit I — Chemical Substances | Chemical reactions/equations, acids/bases/salts, metals & non-metals, carbon compounds | 25 |
| Unit II — World of Living | Life processes, control & coordination, reproduction, heredity | 25 |
| Unit V — Natural Resources | Ecosystems, energy flow, decomposers, environmental issues | 5 |
| Unit III — Natural Phenomena | Reflection/refraction, human eye and its defects | 12 |
| Unit IV — Effects of Current | Ohm's law, resistance, magnetic effects (excluding motor/generator/EMI) | 13 |
| Total | 80 |
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Approx. Marks | Approx. % |
|---|---|---|
| Knowledge & Understanding (state, define, list, describe, identify) | 40 | 50% |
| Application (calculate, illustrate, show, explain, distinguish) | 24 | 30% |
| Analyse, Evaluate & Create (interpret, analyse, compare, contrast, examine) | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Part A: Internal choice provided in Q11 (SA) and Q13 (LA) — 2 of 5 non-VSA questions (~40%).
Part B: Internal choice provided in Q24 (SA), Q27 (LA) and Q28 (LA) — 3 of 6 non-VSA questions (50%).
Part C: Internal choice provided in Q39 (SA) and Q42 (LA) — 2 of 5 non-VSA questions (~40%).
Overall, internal choices are provided in roughly one-third to one-half of the non-VSA questions across the paper, consistent with the CBSE 2026-27 design intent.
5. Exclusions Confirmed
✔ No questions from Periodic Classification of Elements.
✔ No questions from Evolution (speciation, fossils) — only Heredity concepts included.
✔ No questions on Electric Motor, Electromagnetic Induction, or Electric Generator.
✔ No content drawn from "Do You Know" / informational boxes in NCERT textbooks.
Page 4 of 5 (Blueprint & Analysis) | www.careerinformationportal.in
www.careerinformationportal.in
Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — CHEMISTRY
Q1. Displacement reaction.
Q2. NaOH.
Q3. Colourless solution turns pink.
Q4. –CHO.
Q5. Carbon (C) gets oxidised to CO.
Q6. Washing soda; Na₂CO₃·10H₂O.
Q7. (A) Q8. (A)
Q9. 3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂; a combination-type redox reaction (iron is oxidised, steam provides oxidising conditions).
Q10. A reaction in which an insoluble solid (precipitate) is formed when two solutions are mixed; e.g., BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄↓ + 2NaCl.
Q11. Gold and platinum are highly unreactive, so jewellery made from them does not tarnish or corrode; they are also lustrous and malleable, making them suitable for intricate designs (any two points). OR: The decomposition of silver chloride occurs specifically due to exposure to light (sunlight), not heat; reactions that occur due to the absorption of light energy are called photochemical reactions.
Q12. Structure showing a C≡C triple bond, with each carbon also bonded to one hydrogen atom (HC≡CH); a triple covalent bond is present between the two carbon atoms.
Q13. (a) Metal oxides of medium-reactivity metals are reduced by heating with carbon, which is more reactive than the metal and takes away the oxygen; e.g., ZnO + C → Zn + CO. (b) Ores usually occur as sulphides or carbonates, not oxides; roasting (heating sulphide ores in air) or calcination (heating carbonate ores in limited air) converts them into oxides, which can then be more easily reduced by carbon. OR: A homologous series is a series of carbon compounds having the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each successive member differs from the previous one by a –CH₂– unit; features: same general formula (e.g., CnH2n+2 for alkanes), same functional group, and gradual change in physical properties. (b) As molecular mass increases, the strength of intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces) between molecules increases, requiring more energy (higher temperature) to overcome them and change state.
Q14. (i) A mineral from which a metal can be extracted profitably and conveniently is called an ore. (ii) Sodium (or potassium/calcium/magnesium — any highly reactive metal). (iii) Since different metals require different amounts of energy to be separated from their compounds depending on their reactivity, highly reactive metals need strong methods like electrolysis, while less reactive metals can be extracted using simpler methods like heating with carbon or, for very unreactive metals, may not need any chemical extraction at all.
PART B — BIOLOGY
Q15. Thyroxine; iodine is required for its synthesis.
Q16. Tropic movement is the directional growth movement of a plant part in response to an external stimulus, either towards or away from it.
Q17. Pollination.
Q18. Heredity.
Q19. Test cross.
Q20. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Q21. (A) Q22. (D)
Q23. Parathyroid hormone (parathormone); secreted by the parathyroid gland.
Q24. In Rhizopus, tiny spores are formed inside sporangia and are released to develop into new individuals under favourable conditions; in Hydra, a new individual develops as a bud/outgrowth from the parent's body and eventually detaches to become independent. OR: A large number of sperms are produced to increase the probability that at least one sperm will successfully reach and fertilise the egg, since most sperms are lost or fail to reach the egg during their journey.
Q25. Gastric glands secrete gastric juice, containing hydrochloric acid (which kills bacteria and provides an acidic medium) and the enzyme pepsin (which digests proteins).
Q26. HIV-AIDS and gonorrhoea (any two valid examples); prevention — use of condoms during intercourse.
Q27. (a) Air passes through the nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli. (b) Alveoli have thin walls (one-cell thick), are richly supplied with blood capillaries, and provide a very large surface area, all of which allow efficient diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide. OR: Kidneys filter blood and form urine; ureters carry urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder; the bladder stores urine until it is expelled through the urethra. (b) ADH increases the reabsorption of water by the kidney tubules when the body needs to conserve water, resulting in the production of a smaller volume of more concentrated urine.
Q28. (a) Since F1 is entirely round-seeded, the round-seed trait (R) is dominant over the wrinkled-seed trait (r), which is recessive and remains hidden in the F1 generation. (b) On self-pollination of F1 (Rr × Rr), the F2 phenotypic ratio expected is 3 round : 1 wrinkled. OR: On sudden fright, the nervous system triggers an immediate reflex response (e.g., jumping back), while the adrenal gland simultaneously releases adrenaline into the blood, increasing heart rate and preparing the body for prolonged "fight or flight" action. (b) Hormones travel through the bloodstream to reach target organs, which takes more time than the electrical impulses of the nervous system, but their effects tend to last longer since hormone levels change and act gradually over time.
Q29. (i) Producers (green plants). (ii) Dead organic matter and waste would accumulate indefinitely, and essential nutrients would remain locked up, disrupting the cycling of nutrients and eventually limiting the growth of new producers. (iii) Decomposers break down dead plant and animal matter into simpler substances, releasing nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus back into the soil, which are then absorbed by plant roots, enriching soil fertility (e.g., composting of dead leaves by fungi and bacteria).
PART C — PHYSICS
Q30. The principal focus of a concave mirror is the point on its principal axis where parallel rays of light, after reflection from the mirror, actually converge (meet).
Q31. Atmospheric refraction (advance sunrise/delayed sunset effect).
Q32. Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and reduced flexibility of the eye lens with age.
Q33. P = I²R.
Q34. V = IR = 2 × 5 = 10 V.
Q35. Galvanometer.
Q36. (A) Q37. (A)
Q38. The refractive index of a medium with respect to air is the ratio of the speed of light in air (or vacuum) to the speed of light in that medium (n = c/v).
Q39. Different colours of white light have different wavelengths and are refracted by different amounts as they pass through the glass prism, causing them to separate and form a visible spectrum (dispersion). OR: The image formed is real, inverted, highly diminished, and formed at the focus on the other side of the convex lens... (correction: an object at the focus of a convex lens actually produces an image at infinity, highly enlarged; state accordingly) — the image forms at infinity and is real, inverted, and highly magnified.
Q40. Energy = P × t = 1000 W × 3 h = 3000 Wh = 3 kWh.
Q41. The number of turns in the coil, and the magnitude of current flowing through the coil (also depends on the radius of the loop).
Q42. (a) Diagram showing a virtual, erect, and magnified image formed behind the mirror when the object is between the pole and focus of a concave mirror. (b) For a convex mirror, f = +10 cm, u = −15 cm; using 1/v + 1/u = 1/f: 1/v = 1/10 − 1/(−15)... correctly, 1/v = 1/f − 1/u = 1/10 − 1/(−15) = 1/10 + 1/15 = 5/30 = 1/6 ⟹ v = 6 cm (behind the mirror, virtual image). OR: Standard Ohm's law verification circuit description using ammeter, voltmeter, rheostat, and battery, plotting V vs I to get a straight line confirming Ohm's law. (b) Bending the wire into a circle creates two equal semicircular arcs of 3 Ω each between the diametrically opposite points, connected in parallel: 1/R = 1/3+1/3 = 2/3 ⟹ R = 1.5 Ω.
Q43. (i) Hans Christian Oersted. (ii) Electric bell (or electromagnetic crane used to lift scrap iron). (iii) The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductor, and the distance from the conductor at which the field is measured.
Page 5 of 5 (Answer Key) | www.careerinformationportal.in
