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10th CBSE SCIENCE (SAMPLE PAPER 2025-26

Sample Model Question Paper SET-1

SCIENCE 

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Physics (25 marks), Chemistry (25 marks), and Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. A body is moving with uniform acceleration. Which of the following is true?
    A. Its velocity remains constant.
    B. Its displacement increases linearly with time.
    C. Its velocity changes at a constant rate.
    D. Its acceleration changes with time.

  2. The unit of electric field intensity is:
    A. N/C
    B. J/C
    C. V/m
    D. Both A and C

  3. In a convex mirror, the image formed is always:
    A. Real and inverted
    B. Virtual and erect
    C. Real and erect
    D. Virtual and inverted

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define the term "work" in physics and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between scalar and vector quantities? Give one example of each.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the second equation of motion: s = ut + ½ at².

  2. Explain why planets move in elliptical orbits around the Sun.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the working of an electric motor with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s² for 10 seconds. It then maintains a constant velocity for 20 seconds before coming to rest with uniform deceleration in 5 seconds.
    a. Calculate the maximum velocity of the car.
    b. Find the total distance covered by the car.
    c. What is the average velocity during the entire journey?
    d. Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. Which gas is produced when dilute HCl reacts with a metal carbonate?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Hydrogen
    D. Nitrogen

  2. The atomic number of an element is 17. Its electronic configuration is:
    A. 2, 8, 7
    B. 2, 8, 6
    C. 2, 7, 8
    D. 2, 8, 8

  3. Which of the following is a physical change?
    A. Burning of wood
    B. Melting of ice
    C. Rusting of iron
    D. Digestion of food

  4. The pH of a solution is 3. What is the nature of the solution?
    A. Neutral
    B. Basic
    C. Acidic
    D. Amphoteric

  5. In the reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, the limiting reagent is:
    A. H₂ if 2 moles of H₂ and 2 moles of O₂ are present
    B. O₂ if 2 moles of H₂ and 1 mole of O₂ are present
    C. H₂ if 1 mole of H₂ and 2 moles of O₂ are present
    D. O₂ if 4 moles of H₂ and 2 moles of O₂ are present

  6. Which of the following elements belongs to Group 1 of the periodic table?
    A. Sodium
    B. Magnesium
    C. Aluminium
    D. Chlorine

  7. The process of conversion of a liquid into its vapour at any temperature below its boiling point is called:
    A. Sublimation
    B. Evaporation
    C. Condensation
    D. Freezing

  8. The molecular formula of ethanoic acid is:
    A. CH₃OH
    B. CH₃COOH
    C. C₂H₅OH
    D. HCOOH

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. State the law of conservation of mass with an example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the formation of ionic bonds with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of zinc with dilute hydrochloric acid. What type of reaction is this?

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of extraction of aluminium from bauxite ore.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student performs an experiment by adding dilute sulphuric acid to a test tube containing sodium carbonate. A gas is evolved, which turns lime water milky.
    a. Name the gas evolved in the reaction.
    b. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
    c. What is the type of reaction occurring?
    d. Why does the gas turn lime water milky?

Section C: Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Which part of the plant conducts water and minerals from the roots to the leaves?
    A. Phloem
    B. Xylem
    C. Stomata
    D. Epidermis

  2. The process by which green plants make their own food is called:
    A. Respiration
    B. Photosynthesis
    C. Transpiration
    D. Digestion

  3. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of blood sugar levels?
    A. Adrenaline
    B. Insulin
    C. Thyroxine
    D. Estrogen

  4. The smallest unit of life is:
    A. Tissue
    B. Organ
    C. Cell
    D. Organ system

  5. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
    A. Plastic bottle
    B. Vegetable peel
    C. Glass jar
    D. Aluminium foil

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis occurs only in the presence of chlorophyll.
    Reason (R): Chlorophyll absorbs light energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): The human heart has four chambers to prevent mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
    Reason (R): The right side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs, while the left side pumps blood to the rest of the body.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle.
    Reason (R): DNA replication ensures that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Antibiotics are effective against viral infections.
    Reason (R): Antibiotics target bacterial cell walls and metabolic processes.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define osmosis with an example.

  2. What is the role of villi in the small intestine?

  3. Name the two types of cell division and their significance.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of stomata in plants.

  2. Describe the structure of a neuron with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of digestion in humans, mentioning the role of each major digestive organ.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A farmer observes that some plants in his field are wilting despite regular watering. A soil test reveals high salt content in the soil.
    a. What process is likely causing the wilting of plants?
    b. Explain why high salt content affects the plants.
    c. Suggest one method to reduce the salt content in the soil.
    d. How does this process differ from transpiration?

Sample Model Question Paper (SCIENCE) - SET 2

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Physics (25 marks), Chemistry (25 marks), and Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. Which of the following quantities is a vector?
    A. Speed
    B. Distance
    C. Velocity
    D. Energy

  2. The focal length of a concave lens is always:
    A. Positive
    B. Negative
    C. Zero
    D. Infinite

  3. The SI unit of power is:
    A. Joule
    B. Newton
    C. Watt
    D. Volt

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define gravitational force and give one example.

  2. What is the difference between resistance and resistivity?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for kinetic energy of an object.

  2. Explain the principle of conservation of energy with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the working of a transformer with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. It reaches a maximum height and returns to the ground. Assume g = 10 m/s².
    a. Calculate the maximum height reached by the ball.
    b. Find the total time of flight.
    c. What is the velocity of the ball when it returns to the ground?
    d. Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. Which of the following is a non-metal that conducts electricity?
    A. Sulphur
    B. Graphite
    C. Phosphorus
    D. Iodine

  2. The valency of an element with atomic number 12 is:
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

  3. Which of the following reactions is an example of a combination reaction?
    A. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
    B. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
    C. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
    D. 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂

  4. The smell of hot sizzling food is due to:
    A. Diffusion
    B. Evaporation
    C. Sublimation
    D. Condensation

  5. The molecular formula of benzene is:
    A. C₆H₁₂
    B. C₆H₆
    C. C₆H₁₄
    D. C₆H₁₀

  6. Which gas is liberated when sodium reacts with water?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Nitrogen

  7. The process of coating iron with zinc to prevent corrosion is called:
    A. Galvanisation
    B. Electroplating
    C. Rusting
    D. Alloying

  8. Which of the following is a strong acid?
    A. Acetic acid
    B. Citric acid
    C. Hydrochloric acid
    D. Formic acid

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define a chemical bond and name its two main types.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the formation of covalent bonds with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the combustion of methane. What type of reaction is this?

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of preparation of soap, including the chemical reaction involved.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that a piece of iron left exposed to air develops a reddish-brown coating. When the iron is placed in a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid, a gas is evolved.
    a. Name the process causing the reddish-brown coating.
    b. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of iron with dilute hydrochloric acid.
    c. Name the gas evolved in the reaction.
    d. How can the reddish-brown coating be prevented?

Section C: Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. The site of photosynthesis in a plant cell is:
    A. Mitochondria
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Nucleus
    D. Ribosome

  2. Which of the following is an excretory organ in humans?
    A. Liver
    B. Kidney
    C. Pancreas
    D. Stomach

  3. The genetic material in most organisms is:
    A. RNA
    B. DNA
    C. Protein
    D. Lipid

  4. Which of the following is a function of the large intestine?
    A. Digestion of proteins
    B. Absorption of water
    C. Secretion of insulin
    D. Production of bile

  5. The process of breaking down complex food into simpler substances is called:
    A. Respiration
    B. Excretion
    C. Digestion
    D. Circulation

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis.
    Reason (R): Photosynthesis involves the breakdown of water molecules in the presence of light.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): The pancreas is both an exocrine and endocrine gland.
    Reason (R): It secretes digestive enzymes and hormones like insulin.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): Meiosis occurs in somatic cells.
    Reason (R): Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Vaccination provides immunity against diseases.
    Reason (R): Vaccines stimulate the body to produce antibodies.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. What is the role of hemoglobin in blood?

  2. Define biodiversity and give one example.

  3. Name the gas required for photosynthesis and its source in plants.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of transpiration in plants.

  2. Describe the structure of a nephron with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the mechanism of breathing in humans, including the role of the diaphragm and lungs.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that some plants in a garden are not growing properly despite adequate sunlight and water. A soil test shows low nitrogen content.
    a. What is the role of nitrogen in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the plants are not growing properly.
    c. Suggest one method to improve nitrogen content in the soil.
    d. How does nitrogen deficiency differ from water deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 3

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to:
    A. Its mass
    B. Its velocity
    C. Applied force
    D. Its displacement

  2. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
    A. Real and inverted
    B. Virtual and erect
    C. Real and erect
    D. Virtual and inverted

  3. Which of the following is a unit of energy?
    A. Newton
    B. Watt
    C. Joule
    D. Volt

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define power and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between distance and displacement?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the third equation of motion: v² = u² + 2as.

  2. Explain the concept of refraction of light with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the working of a simple pendulum and derive its time period formula.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A cyclist moves along a circular track of radius 50 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s.
    a. Calculate the centripetal acceleration of the cyclist.
    b. What is the time taken to complete one full revolution?
    c. Is the motion uniform or non-uniform? Justify.
    d. Draw the path of the cyclist and indicate the direction of acceleration.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas evolved when zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Sulphur dioxide
    D. Carbon dioxide

  2. An element has 20 protons and 20 neutrons. Its mass number is:
    A. 20
    B. 40
    C. 10
    D. 30

  3. Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
    A. 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl
    B. 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
    C. Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
    D. CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂

  4. The boiling point of water at standard atmospheric pressure is:
    A. 0°C
    B. 100°C
    C. 273 K
    D. 373 K

  5. The functional group present in ethanol is:
    A. -COOH
    B. -OH
    C. -CHO
    D. -NH₂

  6. Which of the following is a metalloid?
    A. Sodium
    B. Silicon
    C. Sulphur
    D. Iron

  7. The process of separating components of crude oil is called:
    A. Distillation
    B. Fractional distillation
    C. Sublimation
    D. Chromatography

  8. Which of the following solutions is neutral?
    A. pH 3
    B. pH 7
    C. pH 10
    D. pH 14

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define valency and give an example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of isotopes with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of electrolytic refining of copper with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student mixes sodium bicarbonate with dilute acetic acid in a test tube and observes the evolution of a gas that extinguishes a burning candle.
    a. Name the gas evolved in the reaction.
    b. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
    c. What type of reaction is this?
    d. Why does the gas extinguish a burning candle?

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. The primary source of energy for Earth's climate system is:
    A. Wind
    B. Sun
    C. Moon
    D. Ocean

  2. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
    A. Nucleus
    B. Mitochondria
    C. Ribosome
    D. Golgi apparatus

  3. The process of pollination in plants involves:
    A. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
    B. Transfer of ovule to stigma
    C. Transfer of pollen from stigma to anther
    D. Transfer of ovule to anther

  4. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. AB
    D. O

  5. The enzyme that digests starch in the human body is:
    A. Pepsin
    B. Trypsin
    C. Amylase
    D. Lipase

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): The small intestine is the main site of nutrient absorption in humans.
    Reason (R): The small intestine has villi that increase its surface area for absorption.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): Plants perform transpiration to regulate water content.
    Reason (R): Transpiration involves the loss of water vapor through stomata.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells.
    Reason (R): Mitosis occurs in gamete-forming cells.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Deforestation leads to loss of biodiversity.
    Reason (R): Deforestation destroys habitats of many species.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define reflex action with an example.

  2. What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

  3. Name two components of the human excretory system.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of enzymes in digestion.

  2. Describe the structure of a chloroplast with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of blood circulation in humans, including the role of the heart and blood vessels.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student notices that some fish in an aquarium are gasping at the water surface. A water test reveals low oxygen levels in the tank.
    a. What process do fish use to obtain oxygen from water?
    b. Explain why low oxygen levels cause fish to gasp.
    c. Suggest one method to increase oxygen levels in the tank.
    d. How does the respiratory system of fish differ from that of humans?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 4

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The force that opposes the motion of an object on a surface is:
    A. Gravitational force
    B. Frictional force
    C. Magnetic force
    D. Electrostatic force

  2. A convex lens can form:
    A. Only real and inverted images
    B. Only virtual and erect images
    C. Both real and virtual images
    D. Only diminished images

  3. The SI unit of electric current is:
    A. Volt
    B. Ampere
    C. Ohm
    D. Watt

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define momentum and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between speed and velocity?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the first equation of motion: v = u + at.

  2. Explain the concept of dispersion of light with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the working of a DC generator with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A stone is dropped from a height of 45 m. Assume g = 10 m/s² and neglect air resistance.
    a. Calculate the time taken to reach the ground.
    b. Find the velocity of the stone just before it hits the ground.
    c. What is the average velocity during the fall?
    d. Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas produced when metals react with dilute acids is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Nitrogen

  2. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of a noble gas is:
    A. 2
    B. 8
    C. 1
    D. 0

  3. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
    A. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
    B. Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
    C. NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
    D. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O

  4. The melting point of ice at standard atmospheric pressure is:
    A. 0°C
    B. 100°C
    C. 273 K
    D. Both A and C

  5. The functional group in aldehydes is:
    A. -OH
    B. -COOH
    C. -CHO
    D. -NH₂

  6. Which element is stored under kerosene to prevent reaction with air?
    A. Iron
    B. Sodium
    C. Carbon
    D. Sulphur

  7. The process of separating a solid from a liquid by passing through a porous material is called:
    A. Distillation
    B. Filtration
    C. Evaporation
    D. Sublimation

  8. Which of the following is a weak base?
    A. Sodium hydroxide
    B. Potassium hydroxide
    C. Ammonium hydroxide
    D. Calcium hydroxide

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define a chemical reaction and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of allotropes with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of magnesium with oxygen. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of extraction of iron from haematite ore.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid to a test tube containing zinc granules and observes gas bubbles. The gas is tested with a burning splinter, producing a pop sound.
    a. Name the gas evolved in the reaction.
    b. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
    c. What type of reaction is this?
    d. Why does the gas produce a pop sound with a burning splinter?

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. The process of releasing energy from food in cells is called:
    A. Photosynthesis
    B. Respiration
    C. Transpiration
    D. Digestion

  2. Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions like heartbeat?
    A. Cerebrum
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Medulla
    D. Hypothalamus

  3. The male reproductive part of a flower is:
    A. Stigma
    B. Anther
    C. Ovary
    D. Petal

  4. Which of the following is a source of proteins?
    A. Rice
    B. Pulses
    C. Sugar
    D. Oil

  5. The process of removal of metabolic wastes from the body is called:
    A. Digestion
    B. Excretion
    C. Circulation
    D. Respiration

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
    Reason (R): Chlorophyll traps sunlight to produce glucose.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): The human kidney filters blood to remove waste.
    Reason (R): Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): Crossing over occurs during meiosis.
    Reason (R): Crossing over leads to genetic variation.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Global warming is caused by the greenhouse effect.
    Reason (R): Carbon dioxide traps heat in the atmosphere.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define fertilization in plants.

  2. What is the role of the pancreas in digestion?

  3. Name two types of tropic movements in plants.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of the liver in digestion.

  2. Describe the structure of a DNA molecule with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of reproduction in flowering plants, including pollination and fertilization.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that some crops in a field show yellowing of leaves. A soil test indicates a deficiency of magnesium.
    a. What is the role of magnesium in plants?
    b. Explain why the leaves are turning yellow.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the magnesium deficiency.
    d. How does magnesium deficiency differ from nitrogen deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 5

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The quantity that remains conserved in an isolated system is:
    A. Velocity
    B. Acceleration
    C. Momentum
    D. Force

  2. The image formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed beyond the center of curvature is:
    A. Virtual and erect
    B. Real and inverted
    C. Virtual and inverted
    D. Real and erect

  3. The SI unit of electric potential is:
    A. Ampere
    B. Ohm
    C. Volt
    D. Watt

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define inertia and give one example.

  2. What is the difference between uniform and non-uniform motion?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for potential energy of an object.

  2. Explain the working principle of a convex lens with a ray diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the construction and working of an electric bell with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A rocket of mass 500 kg is launched vertically upward with an acceleration of 5 m/s². Assume g = 10 m/s².
    a. Calculate the thrust force required for the rocket.
    b. Find the net force acting on the rocket.
    c. What is the velocity of the rocket after 10 seconds?
    d. Draw a diagram showing the forces acting on the rocket.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The product formed when calcium carbonate is heated is:
    A. Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
    B. Calcium oxide and oxygen
    C. Calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
    D. Calcium and carbon dioxide

  2. The atomic number of an element is 19. Its electronic configuration is:
    A. 2, 8, 8, 1
    B. 2, 8, 7
    C. 2, 8, 8, 2
    D. 2, 8, 9

  3. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?
    A. Decomposition of calcium carbonate
    B. Burning of methane
    C. Electrolysis of water
    D. Photosynthesis

  4. The smell of rain is caused by a bacterium called:
    A. Actinomycetes
    B. Cyanobacteria
    C. Streptococcus
    D. Lactobacillus

  5. The homologous series of alcohols has the general formula:
    A. CnH2n+2
    B. CnH2n
    C. CnH2n+1OH
    D. CnH2n-1OH

  6. Which of the following is a non-electrolyte?
    A. Sodium chloride solution
    B. Sugar solution
    C. Hydrochloric acid
    D. Copper sulphate solution

  7. The process of coating a metal with a thin layer of another metal using electricity is called:
    A. Galvanisation
    B. Electroplating
    C. Rusting
    D. Alloying

  8. The pH of a basic solution is:
    A. Less than 7
    B. Equal to 7
    C. Greater than 7
    D. Equal to 0

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define an acid and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of covalent bonding with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of aluminium with dilute sulphuric acid. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the preparation of bleaching powder, including its chemical reaction and uses.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that a silver spoon develops a black coating when left exposed to air for a few days. When treated with dilute acid, the coating disappears.
    a. Name the substance causing the black coating.
    b. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of the coating with dilute acid.
    c. What type of reaction occurs when the coating forms?
    d. Suggest a method to prevent the black coating on silver.

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. The gas released during respiration in humans is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Hydrogen

  2. Which part of the plant is responsible for anchorage and absorption of water?
    A. Stem
    B. Leaf
    C. Root
    D. Flower

  3. The hormone responsible for growth in plants is:
    A. Auxin
    B. Gibberellin
    C. Cytokinin
    D. All of the above

  4. Which of the following is a communicable disease?
    A. Diabetes
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Cancer
    D. Hypertension

  5. The structural unit of the kidney is:
    A. Neuron
    B. Nephron
    C. Alveolus
    D. Villus

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): The heart pumps blood to all parts of the body.
    Reason (R): The heart has four chambers to ensure efficient blood circulation.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): Transpiration helps in the cooling of plants.
    Reason (R): Transpiration involves the evaporation of water from leaves.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): Genetic variation is essential for evolution.
    Reason (R): Mutations are the only source of genetic variation.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Ozone depletion increases UV radiation on Earth.
    Reason (R): Ozone absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define pollination and name its two types.

  2. What is the role of bile in digestion?

  3. Name two types of asexual reproduction in plants.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of xylem and phloem in plants.

  2. Describe the structure of a human heart with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of urine formation in the human kidney, including the role of nephrons.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A farmer notices that some of his crops are showing stunted growth and pale leaves. A soil test reveals a deficiency of phosphorus.
    a. What is the role of phosphorus in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the crops are showing stunted growth.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the phosphorus deficiency.
    d. How does phosphorus deficiency differ from potassium deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 6

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The work done by a force is zero when:
    A. The force is applied parallel to displacement
    B. The displacement is perpendicular to the force
    C. The displacement is parallel to the force
    D. The force is zero

  2. The power of a lens is measured in:
    A. Watt
    B. Dioptre
    C. Joule
    D. Newton

  3. The resistance of a conductor depends on:
    A. Its length
    B. Its material
    C. Its cross-sectional area
    D. All of the above

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define kinetic energy and state its formula.

  2. What is the difference between a real and a virtual image?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for the force acting on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

  2. Explain the concept of total internal reflection with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the construction and working of a compound microscope with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A car of mass 1000 kg is moving at a speed of 20 m/s. The driver applies brakes, and the car comes to rest in 5 seconds.
    a. Calculate the deceleration of the car.
    b. Find the distance covered during braking.
    c. What is the force applied by the brakes?
    d. Draw a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas liberated when sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Chlorine

  2. The number of protons in an atom with atomic number 11 is:
    A. 11
    B. 12
    C. 23
    D. 10

  3. Which of the following is a double displacement reaction?
    A. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
    B. NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
    C. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
    D. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

  4. The boiling point of ethanol is:
    A. 78°C
    B. 100°C
    C. 0°C
    D. 50°C

  5. The functional group in ketones is:
    A. -OH
    B. -CHO
    C. -CO-
    D. -COOH

  6. Which of the following elements is a halogen?
    A. Sodium
    B. Chlorine
    C. Magnesium
    D. Sulphur

  7. The process of separating a liquid from a solid by heating and condensation is called:
    A. Filtration
    B. Distillation
    C. Evaporation
    D. Sublimation

  8. Which of the following is an example of a strong electrolyte?
    A. Sugar solution
    B. Sodium chloride solution
    C. Acetic acid
    D. Alcohol

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define a base and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of ionic bonding with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of manufacture of sulphuric acid by the contact process.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that a copper vessel develops a green coating when left exposed to moist air. When treated with dilute acid, the coating dissolves.
    a. Name the substance causing the green coating.
    b. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of the coating with dilute acid.
    c. What type of reaction occurs when the coating forms?
    d. Suggest a method to prevent the green coating on copper.

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 5 Questions, Total 5 Marks)

  1. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants is:
    A. Hemoglobin
    B. Chlorophyll
    C. Melanin
    D. Carotene

  2. Which organ in humans stores bile?
    A. Liver
    B. Pancreas
    C. Gall bladder
    D. Stomach

  3. The process by which organisms produce offspring is called:
    A. Respiration
    B. Reproduction
    C. Excretion
    D. Digestion

  4. Which of the following is a vector-borne disease?
    A. Malaria
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Typhoid
    D. Cholera

  5. The functional unit of the nervous system is:
    A. Nephron
    B. Neuron
    C. Alveolus
    D. Villus

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 4 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells.
    Reason (R): Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, which absorbs sunlight.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): The lungs are the primary organs of respiration in humans.
    Reason (R): The alveoli in the lungs facilitate gas exchange.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  3. Assertion (A): Inbreeding reduces genetic diversity.
    Reason (R): Inbreeding involves mating between closely related individuals.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  4. Assertion (A): Overuse of pesticides harms the environment.
    Reason (R): Pesticides can accumulate in the food chain, affecting non-target organisms.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define transpiration and its significance in plants.

  2. What is the role of saliva in digestion?

  3. Name two types of glands in the human body and their functions.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of hormones in plant growth.

  2. Describe the structure of a plant cell with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of photosynthesis, including the role of light and carbon dioxide.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that some plants in a greenhouse are growing slowly and have small, pale leaves. A soil test reveals a deficiency of iron.
    a. What is the role of iron in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the plants have pale leaves.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the iron deficiency.
    d. How does iron deficiency differ from magnesium deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 8

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion is called:
    A. Force
    B. Inertia
    C. Momentum
    D. Acceleration

  2. The focal length of a plane mirror is:
    A. Zero
    B. Infinite
    C. Positive
    D. Negative

  3. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is:
    A. Tesla
    B. Weber
    C. Ampere
    D. Volt

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define acceleration and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between mass and weight?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for the universal law of gravitation.

  2. Explain the concept of magnetic field lines with a diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the construction and working of an AC generator with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A truck of mass 2000 kg is moving at 15 m/s on a horizontal road. The driver applies brakes, and the truck stops in 4 seconds.
    a. Calculate the deceleration of the truck.
    b. Find the distance covered during braking.
    c. What is the force applied by the brakes?
    d. Draw a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas evolved when magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Chlorine
    D. Carbon dioxide

  2. The atomic number of an element is 16. Its electronic configuration is:
    A. 2, 8, 6
    B. 2, 8, 8
    C. 2, 6, 8
    D. 2, 8, 7

  3. Which of the following is a displacement reaction?
    A. 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl
    B. Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
    C. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
    D. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O

  4. The process of conversion of a solid directly into a gas is called:
    A. Evaporation
    B. Sublimation
    C. Condensation
    D. Crystallization

  5. The functional group in alkenes is:
    A. -OH
    B. C=C
    C. -COOH
    D. -CHO

  6. Which of the following is an alkali metal?
    A. Calcium
    B. Potassium
    C. Iron
    D. Sulphur

  7. The process of separating salt from seawater is called:
    A. Distillation
    B. Filtration
    C. Evaporation
    D. Sublimation

  8. The pH of gastric juice in the human stomach is approximately:
    A. 2
    B. 7
    C. 10
    D. 14

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define an element and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of valency with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of copper with dilute nitric acid. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of extraction of zinc from zinc blende ore.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student adds dilute sulphuric acid to a test tube containing barium chloride solution and observes a white precipitate.
    a. Name the precipitate formed.
    b. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
    c. What type of reaction is this?
    d. Why does the precipitate form?

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 7 Questions, Total 7 Marks)

  1. The process by which plants prepare their food is:
    A. Respiration
    B. Photosynthesis
    C. Transpiration
    D. Digestion

  2. Which part of the human brain is responsible for balance and coordination?
    A. Cerebrum
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Medulla
    D. Hypothalamus

  3. The reproductive part of a plant is:
    A. Leaf
    B. Stem
    C. Flower
    D. Root

  4. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin C
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Vitamin K

  5. The process of movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called:
    A. Diffusion
    B. Osmosis
    C. Active transport
    D. Transpiration

  6. Which of the following organisms reproduces by binary fission?
    A. Hydra
    B. Amoeba
    C. Planaria
    D. Yeast

  7. The enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach is:
    A. Amylase
    B. Lipase
    C. Pepsin
    D. Trypsin

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 2 Questions, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): The human heart is a four-chambered organ.
    Reason (R): The four chambers prevent mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): Deforestation increases carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
    Reason (R): Trees absorb carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define a hormone and give one example in plants.

  2. What is the role of the epiglottis in humans?

  3. Name two types of reproduction in animals.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of the large intestine in digestion.

  2. Describe the structure of a flower with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of excretion in humans, including the role of kidneys and nephrons.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A farmer notices that some of his plants have weak stems and reduced fruit production. A soil test reveals a deficiency of potassium.
    a. What is the role of potassium in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the plants have weak stems.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the potassium deficiency.
    d. How does potassium deficiency differ from nitrogen deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 8

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The quantity that measures the rate of doing work is:
    A. Force
    B. Energy
    C. Power
    D. Momentum

  2. The image formed by a convex mirror is always:
    A. Real and inverted
    B. Virtual and erect
    C. Real and erect
    D. Virtual and inverted

  3. The device used to measure potential difference is:
    A. Ammeter
    B. Voltmeter
    C. Galvanometer
    D. Ohmmeter

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define energy and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between a convex and a concave lens?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for the law of conservation of momentum.

  2. Explain the concept of electromagnetic induction with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the construction and working of a cyclotron with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A block of mass 2 kg is pushed along a horizontal surface with a force of 10 N. The frictional force is 4 N. Assume g = 10 m/s².
    a. Calculate the net force acting on the block.
    b. Find the acceleration of the block.
    c. What is the work done by the applied force over 5 m?
    d. Draw a diagram showing the forces acting on the block.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas evolved when aluminium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Chlorine
    D. Nitrogen

  2. The atomic number of an element is 12. Its electronic configuration is:
    A. 2, 8, 2
    B. 2, 8, 1
    C. 2, 7, 3
    D. 2, 8, 3

  3. Which of the following is a thermal decomposition reaction?
    A. 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl
    B. 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂
    C. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
    D. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

  4. The boiling point of water at standard atmospheric pressure is:
    A. 0°C
    B. 100°C
    C. 273 K
    D. Both B and C

  5. The functional group in alkynes is:
    A. C=C
    B. C≡C
    C. -OH
    D. -COOH

  6. Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
    A. Nitrogen
    B. Helium
    C. Oxygen
    D. Fluorine

  7. The process of separating sugar from its solution is called:
    A. Crystallization
    B. Filtration
    C. Distillation
    D. Chromatography

  8. The pH of a neutral solution is:
    A. 0
    B. 7
    C. 14
    D. 10

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define a compound and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of electronegativity with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of zinc with dilute nitric acid. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of preparation of chlorine gas in the laboratory, including the chemical reaction.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student adds dilute sodium hydroxide to a test tube containing copper sulphate solution and observes a blue precipitate.
    a. Name the precipitate formed.
    b. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
    c. What type of reaction is this?
    d. Why does the precipitate form?

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 7 Questions, Total 7 Marks)

  1. The gas absorbed by plants during photosynthesis is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Hydrogen

  2. Which part of the human eye controls the amount of light entering?
    A. Cornea
    B. Iris
    C. Lens
    D. Retina

  3. The process of fusion of male and female gametes is called:
    A. Pollination
    B. Fertilization
    C. Germination
    D. Reproduction

  4. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Vitamin B
    C. Vitamin A
    D. Vitamin B12

  5. The process of movement of substances from a region of high concentration to low concentration is called:
    A. Osmosis
    B. Diffusion
    C. Active transport
    D. Transpiration

  6. Which organism reproduces by budding?
    A. Amoeba
    B. Hydra
    C. Planaria
    D. Paramecium

  7. The enzyme that digests fats in the small intestine is:
    A. Amylase
    B. Lipase
    C. Pepsin
    D. Trypsin

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 2 Questions, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): The human stomach secretes hydrochloric acid.
    Reason (R): Hydrochloric acid activates pepsin for protein digestion.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): Overpopulation leads to resource depletion.
    Reason (R): Increased population increases demand for food, water, and energy.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define digestion and name one digestive enzyme.

  2. What is the role of the diaphragm in breathing?

  3. Name two types of plant movements with examples.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion.

  2. Describe the structure of a stoma with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of sexual reproduction in humans, including the role of reproductive organs.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A farmer observes that some of his crops have small leaves and poor flowering. A soil test indicates a deficiency of zinc.
    a. What is the role of zinc in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the crops have poor flowering.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the zinc deficiency.
    d. How does zinc deficiency differ from iron deficiency in plants?

Sample Model Question Paper (Science: Physics, Chemistry, Biology) - SET 9

Total Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper has three sections: Science - Physics (25 marks), Science - Chemistry (25 marks), and Science - Biology (30 marks).
  3. Question types include:
    • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs, including Assertion-Reason for Biology): 1 mark each.
    • Very Short Answer (VSA): 2 marks each.
    • Short Answer (SA): 3 marks each.
    • Long Answer (LA): 5 marks each.
    • Competency-Based (Case-Based/Source-Based): 4 marks each.
  4. 50% of questions are competency-based, 20% are MCQs, and 30% are short/long answer questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: Science - Physics (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 3 Questions, Total 3 Marks)

  1. The physical quantity that has both magnitude and direction is:
    A. Speed
    B. Work
    C. Velocity
    D. Energy

  2. The power of a lens with a focal length of 25 cm is:
    A. 4 D
    B. 2 D
    C. -4 D
    D. -2 D

  3. The device used to measure resistance in a circuit is:
    A. Voltmeter
    B. Ammeter
    C. Ohmmeter
    D. Galvanometer

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Define work and state its SI unit.

  2. What is the difference between positive and negative acceleration?

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Derive the expression for the kinetic energy of a moving object.

  2. Explain the concept of the Doppler effect with an example.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the construction and working of an electric motor with a labeled diagram.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A toy car of mass 0.2 kg is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of 5 m/s in 2 seconds on a frictionless surface.
    a. Calculate the acceleration of the car.
    b. Find the force applied to the car.
    c. What is the distance covered by the car in 2 seconds?
    d. Draw a velocity-time graph for the motion.

Section B: Science - Chemistry (25 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 8 Questions, Total 8 Marks)

  1. The gas produced when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Chlorine

  2. The atomic number of an element is 20. Its electronic configuration is:
    A. 2, 8, 8, 2
    B. 2, 8, 7
    C. 2, 8, 9
    D. 2, 8, 10

  3. Which of the following is a combination reaction?
    A. Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
    B. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
    C. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
    D. NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃

  4. The melting point of ethanol is:
    A. -114°C
    B. 78°C
    C. 0°C
    D. 100°C

  5. The functional group in amines is:
    A. -OH
    B. -NH₂
    C. -COOH
    D. -CHO

  6. Which element is stored under water to prevent reaction with air?
    A. Sodium
    B. Phosphorus
    C. Magnesium
    D. Sulphur

  7. The process of separating components of a mixture based on their boiling points is called:
    A. Filtration
    B. Distillation
    C. Chromatography
    D. Evaporation

  8. The pH of a strong acid solution is approximately:
    A. 7
    B. 14
    C. 0
    D. 10

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks, 1 Question, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Define a chemical bond and give one example.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the concept of ionization energy with an example.

  2. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid. Identify the type of reaction.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of preparation of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process, including the chemical reaction.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A student observes that a brass statue develops a green coating when exposed to air. When treated with dilute acid, the coating dissolves.
    a. Name the substance causing the green coating.
    b. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of the coating with dilute acid.
    c. What type of reaction occurs when the coating forms?
    d. Suggest a method to prevent the green coating on brass.

Section C: Science - Biology (30 Marks)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 Mark Each, 7 Questions, Total 7 Marks)

  1. The primary site of photosynthesis in a plant cell is:
    A. Mitochondria
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Nucleus
    D. Ribosome

  2. Which organ in humans regulates body temperature?
    A. Hypothalamus
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Medulla
    D. Cerebrum

  3. The process of seed development after fertilization is called:
    A. Pollination
    B. Germination
    C. Embryogenesis
    D. Reproduction

  4. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
    A. Calcium
    B. Iron
    C. Phosphorus
    D. Potassium

  5. The movement of water through a plant’s vascular system is facilitated by:
    A. Xylem
    B. Phloem
    C. Stomata
    D. Epidermis

  6. Which organism reproduces by regeneration?
    A. Amoeba
    B. Planaria
    C. Yeast
    D. Hydra

  7. The enzyme that digests carbohydrates in the small intestine is:
    A. Pepsin
    B. Lipase
    C. Amylase
    D. Trypsin

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each, 2 Questions, Total 2 Marks)

  1. Assertion (A): The kidneys filter blood to remove nitrogenous wastes.
    Reason (R): Nephrons are the structural and functional units of the kidney.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

  2. Assertion (A): Acid rain harms aquatic ecosystems.
    Reason (R): Acid rain lowers the pH of water bodies, affecting aquatic life.
    A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    C. A is true, but R is false.
    D. A is false, but R is true.

Very Short Answer (VSA) (2 Marks Each, 3 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Define respiration and name one respiratory organ in humans.

  2. What is the role of guard cells in plants?

  3. Name two types of nucleic acids and their functions.

Short Answer (SA) (3 Marks Each, 2 Questions, Total 6 Marks)

  1. Explain the role of the stomach in digestion.

  2. Describe the structure of a root hair with a labeled diagram.

Long Answer (LA) (5 Marks, 1 Question, Total 5 Marks)

  1. Explain the process of nervous coordination in humans, including the role of neurons and the brain.

Competency-Based (Case-Based) (4 Marks, 1 Question, Total 4 Marks)

  1. Case-Based Question: A farmer observes that some crops show reduced growth and yellowing of younger leaves. A soil test indicates a deficiency of sulphur.
    a. What is the role of sulphur in plant growth?
    b. Explain why the younger leaves are yellowing.
    c. Suggest one method to correct the sulphur deficiency.
    d. How does sulphur deficiency differ from zinc deficiency in plants?


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Syllabus: General Studies, Environment Science, Hindi. Focus on pollution control, ecology.

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Patna High Court Stenographer Online Form 2025 – Last Date Today

Vacancies: 111

Eligibility: 12th Pass + Shorthand 80 wpm; Age 18-47 years (as on 01/01/2025)

Last Date: 19 September 2025

Syllabus: Written: English Grammar, Computer Basics; Skill Test: Shorthand/Typing. Qualifying: 40% General.

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IOCL Pipelines Division Apprentice Online Form 2025 – Date Extend

Vacancies: 537

Eligibility: ITI/Diploma/12th; Age 18-24 years (as on 31/08/2025)

Last Date: 28 September 2025

Syllabus: Merit-based on qualifying marks; No exam. Focus on trade skills.

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Railway RRB Junior Engineer JE Online Form 2025

Vacancies: 2570

Eligibility: Diploma/BE; Age 18-33 years

Last Date: To be announced (Notification in September 2025)

Syllabus: CBT 1: Maths, Reasoning, GK; CBT 2: Technical Subject. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Railway RRC NCR Apprentice Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 1763

Eligibility: 10th + ITI; Age 15-24 years

Last Date: 17 October 2025

Syllabus: Merit-based; No exam. Focus on ITI marks.

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IBPS RRB 14th Online Form 2025 – (13217 Posts)

Vacancies: 13217

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 18-28/40 years (post-wise)

Last Date: 21 September 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: Reasoning, Quant; Mains: English, GK, Computer. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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DSSSB Primary Teacher PRT Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 1180

Eligibility: 12th + B.El.Ed/D.El.Ed; Age up to 30 years

Last Date: 16 October 2025

Syllabus: General Awareness, Reasoning, Hindi, English, Maths, EVS. Qualifying: 40% General.

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BPSC APS & WMO Online Form 2025

Vacancies: 60

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 21-42 years

Last Date: 30 September 2025

Syllabus: General Studies, Sanitation/Waste Management. Qualifying: 30% language.

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UPPSC APO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 182

Eligibility: LLB; Age 21-40 years

Last Date: 16 October 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: GK, Law; Mains: Constitution, IPC, CrPC. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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MPESB Police Constable Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 7500

Eligibility: 12th Pass; Age 18-33 years

Last Date: 29 September 2025

Syllabus: GK, Reasoning, Maths, Hindi, Science. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Bihar BSSC Office Attendant Online Form 2025 (3727 Posts) – Start

Vacancies: 3727

Eligibility: 10th Pass; Age 18-37 years

Last Date: 24 September 2025

Syllabus: Written: GK, Maths, Reasoning. Qualifying: 30% UR.

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RRB Section Controller Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 368

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 20-33 years

Last Date: 14 October 2025

Syllabus: CBT: Reasoning, Maths, GK. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Bihar BSSC 4th Graduate Level Online Form 2025 (1481 Posts) – Start

Vacancies: 1481

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 21-37 years

Last Date: 24 September 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: GK, Reasoning; Mains: Hindi, English, Subject. Qualifying: 30% UR.

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RRVUNL Technician III, Operator & Plant Attendant Online Form 2025 – Re-Open

Vacancies: 2163

Eligibility: ITI; Age 18-28 years

Last Date: 25 September 2025

Syllabus: Written: Technical, GK, Reasoning. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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BPSC District Sports Officer DSO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 33

Eligibility: Graduation + Sports Degree; Age 21-42 years

Last Date: 26 September 2025

Syllabus: GK, Sports Science, Hindi. Qualifying: 30% language.

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BPSC HOD Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 218

Eligibility: PhD/Master's + Experience; Age 33+ years

Last Date: 30 September 2025

Syllabus: Subject-specific, Teaching Aptitude. Interview-based.

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Army AFMS MO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 225

Eligibility: MBBS; Age up to 30/35 years

Last Date: 03 October 2025

Syllabus: NEET PG-based shortlisting; Interview: Medical Knowledge.

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IOCL Junior Engineer/ Officer Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: Not specified

Eligibility: Diploma; Age 18-26 years

Last Date: 28 September 2025

Syllabus: CBT: Domain (50%), Aptitude (50%). Qualifying: 45% UR.

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