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Amines: Arrange primary, secondary, and tertiary amines in increasing order of basic strength in an aqueous medium

Chapter: Amines

Topic: Basic Strength of Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Amines in Aqueous Medium

Basic Strength of Amines in Aqueous Medium

Amines behave as bases because the nitrogen atom contains a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺).

RNH₂ + H₂O ⇌ RNH₃⁺ + OH⁻

For simple aliphatic amines in an aqueous medium, the commonly accepted order of basic strength is:

Secondary amine > Primary amine > Tertiary amine > NH₃

For example:

(CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃

The basicity of amines in water depends mainly on two competing factors:

1. +I Effect of Alkyl Groups
+
2. Solvation of the Protonated Amine

Alkyl groups donate electron density towards nitrogen and therefore increase its ability to accept H⁺.

However, after protonation, the resulting ammonium ion must be stabilised by interaction with water molecules.

In aqueous solution, both electronic effect and solvation determine the basic strength.

Alkyl groups have an electron-releasing +I (positive inductive) effect. They push electron density towards nitrogen.

Alkyl groups
↓
Electron density on N ↑
↓
Ability to accept H⁺ ↑
↓
Basicity ↑

Therefore, replacing H atoms by alkyl groups generally increases electron density at nitrogen.

If only the +I effect were considered, tertiary amines would be expected to be the strongest bases.

When an amine accepts H⁺, it forms an ammonium ion. This ion is stabilised by hydrogen bonding with water molecules.

RNH₂ + H₂O ⇌ RNH₃⁺ + OH⁻

The protonated amine is surrounded by water molecules. This process is called solvation.

Primary ammonium ions have more N–H hydrogen atoms available for hydrogen bonding with water than tertiary ammonium ions. Also, bulky alkyl groups in tertiary amines hinder close interaction with water.

Better solvation of the conjugate acid → Greater stability → Greater basic strength

Tertiary amines contain three alkyl groups around nitrogen. These groups make the nitrogen environment more crowded.

R₃N + H⁺ → R₃NH⁺

The bulky alkyl groups can hinder the approach and interaction of water molecules with the protonated amine.

Greater steric hindrance → Poorer solvation → Lower basic strength than expected from +I effect alone

Feature	1° Amine	2° Amine	3° Amine
General formula	RNH₂	R₂NH	R₃N
Alkyl groups	1	2	3
+I effect	Moderate	Higher	Highest
Steric hindrance	Low	Moderate	High
Solvation of conjugate acid	Good	Very good	Relatively poor
Basic strength in water	High	Highest	Lower than 1° and 2°

Important Exam Point:

Do not apply the simple rule 3° > 2° > 1° to amines in aqueous solution. That order ignores solvation and steric effects.

For simple aliphatic amines in aqueous medium, the commonly taught order is:

2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃

The question asks for the increasing order. Therefore, write the weakest base first.

NH₃ < 3° Amine < 1° Amine < 2° Amine

If only primary, secondary and tertiary amines are considered:

3° Amine < 1° Amine < 2° Amine

Example:

(CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH

An amine acts as a Brønsted base by accepting a proton from water.

RNH₂ + H₂O ⇌ RNH₃⁺ + OH⁻

A stronger base has a greater tendency to accept H⁺ and therefore produces a greater concentration of OH⁻.

Stronger base → More stable protonated amine → Equilibrium more favourable towards products

Q. Arrange primary, secondary and tertiary amines in increasing order of basic strength in aqueous medium.

Answer:

3° Amine < 1° Amine < 2° Amine

In water, the +I effect of alkyl groups competes with solvation of the protonated amine. Secondary amines have a favourable balance of both effects.

Q. Why is the order of basic strength of amines in aqueous medium not simply 3° > 2° > 1°?

Answer:

Alkyl groups increase basicity through their +I effect.
In aqueous medium, the protonated amine is stabilised by solvation and hydrogen bonding with water.
Tertiary amines have greater steric hindrance and their protonated ions are comparatively less effectively solvated.

Therefore: 2° > 1° > 3°

Q. Explain the basic strength order of primary, secondary and tertiary amines in aqueous medium.

Answer:

The +I effect of alkyl groups increases electron density on nitrogen and favours protonation. Thus, increasing alkyl substitution tends to increase basicity.

However, in water, the protonated amines are solvated by water molecules. Secondary ammonium ions are effectively solvated and also benefit from the +I effect of two alkyl groups.

In tertiary amines, the three alkyl groups create greater steric hindrance and reduce effective solvation.

2° Amine > 1° Amine > 3° Amine

Q. Explain in detail the basic strength of primary, secondary and tertiary amines in aqueous medium.

1. +I Effect

Alkyl groups release electron density towards nitrogen. This increases the tendency of nitrogen to accept H⁺.

2. Protonation

R₃N + H₂O ⇌ R₃NH⁺ + OH⁻

The protonated amine is the conjugate acid of the amine. Its stability influences the basicity.

3. Solvation

Water molecules form hydrogen bonds with the protonated ammonium ion. Better solvation stabilises the conjugate acid and favours the protonation equilibrium.

4. Steric Effect

Three alkyl groups around nitrogen in tertiary amines make the environment crowded and reduce effective interaction with water.

5. Overall Order

2° Amine > 1° Amine > 3° Amine

Therefore, the increasing order is:

3° Amine < 1° Amine < 2° Amine

Q. Discuss all the factors responsible for the basic strength order of primary, secondary and tertiary amines in aqueous medium.

1. Nature of Amines

1° → RNH₂
2° → R₂NH
3° → R₃N

2. +I Effect

Alkyl groups show a +I effect and increase electron density on nitrogen. This favours acceptance of H⁺.

3. Solvation

In aqueous solution, the protonated amines interact with water by hydrogen bonding. The stability of these solvated ions contributes strongly to their observed basic strength.

4. Steric Hindrance

Tertiary ammonium ions are surrounded by three alkyl groups. This crowding makes solvation comparatively less effective.

5. Balance of Effects

+I Effect
↑
Basicity

but

Steric Hindrance
↓
Solvation

The secondary amine provides a particularly favourable balance of electron donation and solvation in aqueous medium.

6. Final Order

Basic strength:

2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃

Increasing order:

NH₃ < 3° < 1° < 2°

1. Amines are basic because nitrogen contains:

A) A positive charge

B) A lone pair of electrons

C) No electrons

D) A double bond only

✅ Answer

B) A lone pair of electrons

2. In aqueous medium, the generally accepted order for simple aliphatic amines is:

A) 1° > 2° > 3°

B) 3° > 2° > 1°

C) 2° > 1° > 3°

D) 3° > 1° > 2°

✅ Answer

C) 2° > 1° > 3°

3. Increasing order of basic strength is:

A) 2° < 1° < 3°

B) 3° < 1° < 2°

C) 1° < 3° < 2°

D) 2° < 3° < 1°

✅ Answer

B) 3° < 1° < 2°

4. Alkyl groups increase amine basicity through:

A) –I effect

B) +I effect

C) –M effect only

D) Hydrogen bonding only

✅ Answer

B) +I effect

5. In water, protonated amines are stabilised by:

A) Solvation

B) Oxidation

C) Reduction

D) Polymerisation

✅ Answer

A) Solvation

6. Which amine has three alkyl groups attached to nitrogen?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) Ammonia

✅ Answer

C) Tertiary

7. General formula of a primary amine is:

A) RNH₂

B) R₂NH

C) R₃N

D) R₄N⁺

✅ Answer

A) RNH₂

8. General formula of a secondary amine is:

A) RNH₂

B) R₂NH

C) R₃N

D) NH₄⁺

✅ Answer

B) R₂NH

9. General formula of a tertiary amine is:

A) RNH₂

B) R₂NH

C) R₃N

D) NH₃

✅ Answer

C) R₃N

10. Which factor reduces the expected basicity of tertiary amines in water?

A) +I effect

B) Better electron donation

C) Steric hindrance and poorer solvation

D) Increase in lone pair

✅ Answer

11. A stronger Brønsted base has greater tendency to:

A) Donate H⁺

B) Accept H⁺

C) Donate electrons only to oxygen

D) Lose neutrons

✅ Answer

B) Accept H⁺

12. In the reaction RNH₂ + H₂O ⇌ RNH₃⁺ + OH⁻, RNH₂ acts as:

A) Acid

B) Base

C) Salt

D) Oxidising agent

✅ Answer

B) Base

13. The conjugate acid of RNH₂ is:

A) RN²⁻

B) RNH₃⁺

C) RNH⁻

D) R⁺

✅ Answer

B) RNH₃⁺

14. Which has the highest +I effect among the following?

A) NH₃

B) Primary amine

C) Secondary amine

D) Tertiary amine

✅ Answer

D) Tertiary amine

15. If only the +I effect were considered, the expected order would be:

A) 1° > 2° > 3°

B) 3° > 2° > 1°

C) 2° > 3° > 1°

D) All equal

✅ Answer

B) 3° > 2° > 1°

16. The observed order in aqueous medium is affected by:

A) Only +I effect

B) Only molecular mass

C) +I effect, solvation and steric effects

D) Only colour

✅ Answer

17. Which amine generally has the best balance of +I effect and solvation in water?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) None

✅ Answer

B) Secondary

18. Steric hindrance is greatest around nitrogen in:

A) Primary amines

B) Secondary amines

C) Tertiary amines

D) Ammonia

✅ Answer

C) Tertiary amines

19. Complete the order: ___ < 1° < 2°.

A) 3°

B) 2°

C) 1°

D) NH₄⁺

✅ Answer

A) 3°

20. The correct basic strength order in aqueous medium is:

A) 3° > 2° > 1° > NH₃

B) 1° > 2° > 3° > NH₃

C) 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃

D) NH₃ > 3° > 1° > 2°

✅ Answer

C) 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃

🎯 Quick Revision

Primary amine: RNH₂
Secondary amine: R₂NH
Tertiary amine: R₃N
Alkyl group: +I effect
+I effect: Basicity ↑
Water: Solvation is important
Tertiary amine: Greater steric hindrance
Basic strength: 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃
Increasing order: NH₃ < 3° < 1° < 2°

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 6 - 2026-27

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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 6 (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts, corresponding to the four disciplines of Social Science — Part A: History (20 Marks), Part B: Geography (20 Marks), Part C: Political Science (20 Marks), and Part D: Economics (20 Marks).

2. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/objective, including one Assertion–Reason question), Section 2 — Short Answer, and Section 3 — Long Answer, with an internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words, and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Attempt all parts; marks for each question are indicated against it.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. In which year did the Indian National Congress first put forward the demand for "Purna Swaraj" (complete independence)? 1

Q2. Name the movement associated with the phrase "Do or Die", launched by Gandhi in 1942. 1

Q3. The "Cotton Famine" that boosted cotton production and exports from India in the 1860s was linked to which event? 1

Q4. Name any one type of print material used by 19th-century reformers to reach illiterate people through public readings. 1

Q5. Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi chose to break the salt law as a means of protest in 1930.
Reason (R): Salt was consumed by rich and poor alike, and taxing it was seen as one of the most oppressive aspects of British rule affecting everyone. 1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8

Q6. Explain any three reasons why the Muslim League felt alienated from the Congress-led national movement in the 1930s. 3

Q7. Describe any three effects of the Great Depression on international trade and the global economy. 3

Q8. Explain any three changes brought about in the working conditions of workers during the early phase of industrialisation in England. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9

Q9. Discuss the impact of the two World Wars on the growth of Indian industries, particularly during the interwar period. 6

— OR —

Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in uniting different social classes and groups during the national movement.

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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. Name the type of resource, classified on the basis of ownership, that belongs to the community/nation, such as public parks. 1

Q11. Name the staple food crop of India, and the season in which it is primarily grown. 1

Q12. Name any two leading cotton-producing states in India. 1

Q13. What term is used for the total stock of resources of a country, including both discovered and undiscovered resources? 1

Q14. Assertion (A): Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and West Bengal together account for a large share of India's coal reserves.
Reason (R): These states are located on the Chota Nagpur Plateau region, which is rich in mineral deposits. 1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17

Q15. Explain any three ways in which multipurpose river projects can be beneficial for the regions they are built in. 3

Q16. Describe any three characteristics of "plantation agriculture" in India, mentioning one example crop. 3

Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following: (a) A major iron-ore mine, (b) A leading rice-producing state, (c) A hydroelectric power project. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18

Q18. Explain any three factors responsible for land degradation caused by human activities in India, and suggest measures to conserve land resources. 6

— OR —

Discuss the classification of industries based on raw materials, size and ownership, giving one example of each category.

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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. Name the process by which power is distributed among different social groups, such as religious and linguistic communities. 1

Q20. What is meant by a "reserved constituency" in the context of elections in India? 1

Q21. Name the body responsible for conducting elections in India and ensuring their fairness. 1

Q22. What is meant by a "one-party dominant system"? 1

Q23. Assertion (A): In India, the central government cannot alter the boundaries of a state without following due constitutional process.
Reason (R): This reflects the federal nature of the Indian constitution, which grants certain protections to states as constituent units. 1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26

Q24. Explain any three ways in which language policy has been handled in India to accommodate linguistic diversity. 3

Q25. State any three differences between a "national party" and a "state (regional) party" in the Indian political system. 3

Q26. Explain any three factors that have led to a decline in public confidence in political parties in recent years. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27

Q27. Discuss the importance of political parties in a democracy, and explain any three challenges they face in India today. 6

— OR —

Explain the meaning of "federalism", and discuss how it helps in managing diversity in a large country like India.

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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. Define "literacy rate" as an indicator of development. 1

Q29. Name the sector of the economy that includes crop production, animal husbandry, forestry and fishing. 1

Q30. What is meant by "microcredit"? 1

Q31. Name any one product or company widely recognised as a global multinational corporation. 1

Q32. Assertion (A): Small producers in developing countries often find it difficult to compete with large MNCs.
Reason (R): MNCs typically have access to greater capital, advanced technology and established brand recognition. 1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35

Q33. Explain any three limitations of using "per capita income" alone as an indicator of development. 3

Q34. Describe any three reasons why credit is important for the process of development. 3

Q35. Explain any three roles of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in shaping international trade. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36

Q36. Discuss the meaning of the "Human Development Index" (HDI), and explain how it differs from using income alone to measure development. 6

— OR —

Explain the process of "outsourcing", and discuss its role in the growth of India's service sector due to globalisation.

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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint

1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint

Part	Section 1 (VSA + AR)	Section 2 (SA)	Section 3 (LA)	Total
A — History	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
B — Geography	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
C — Political Science	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
D — Economics	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
Total	20	36	24	80

2. Chapter Coverage

Subject	Chapters Covered
History	Nationalism in India, The Making of a Global World, The Age of Industrialisation, Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography	Resources and Development, Forest and Wildlife Resources, Water Resources, Agriculture, Minerals and Energy Resources
Political Science	Power Sharing, Federalism, Political Parties, Challenges to Democracy, Democracy and Accountability
Economics	Development, Sectors of the Indian Economy, Money and Credit, Globalisation and the Indian Economy, Consumer Rights

3. Question Typology

Type	Marks per Question	Total Questions	Total Marks
Very Short Answer (MCQ/Objective/Assertion–Reason)	1	20	20
Short Answer	3	12	36
Long Answer (with internal choice)	6	4	24
Total		36	80

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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)

PART A — HISTORY

Q1. 1929, at the Lahore session of the Congress.

Q2. Quit India Movement.

Q3. The American Civil War (which disrupted cotton supply from the USA, increasing demand for Indian cotton).

Q4. Ballads and folk songs (printed and read aloud in public gatherings) — any correct example.

Q5. (A)

Q6. Reasons include: the Muslim League felt Congress did not adequately represent Muslim interests; disagreements over the Nehru Report's proposals on minority representation; and growing communal tensions and mutual distrust between Congress and League leadership through the 1930s.

Q7. Effects included: a sharp decline in international trade as countries raised tariffs to protect domestic industries; collapse in agricultural prices, badly affecting farmers globally, including in India; and a general credit squeeze, as banks failed and investment dried up worldwide.

Q8. Changes included: long working hours in poor conditions in factories; employment of child labour in hazardous conditions; and gradual introduction of factory laws limiting working hours and improving safety standards after protests/reforms.

Q9. The World Wars increased demand for industrial goods (as imports from Britain declined), boosting Indian industries like cotton and jute; however, the interwar period also saw fluctuating fortunes due to the Great Depression affecting export-oriented industries. OR: Gandhi's leadership, use of symbols (like the charkha) and simple language helped unite peasants, business classes, and women, giving the movement a genuinely mass character across social divides.

PART B — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. Community-owned (or common property/national) resources.

Q11. Rice; grown mainly in the Kharif season.

Q12. Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Q13. Total resources (also referred to as the resource base, including potential and actual resources).

Q14. (A)

Q15. Benefits include: providing irrigation for agriculture, generating hydroelectric power, and helping control floods in the river basin.

Q16. Characteristics: a single crop is grown over a large estate; requires large capital investment and labour; produce is generally meant for the market/export; example crop — tea (or coffee/rubber).

Q17. Map-based answer: iron-ore mines (e.g., Bailadila, Noamundi), rice-producing states (e.g., West Bengal, Punjab), and hydroelectric projects (e.g., Bhakra-Nangal, Tehri) — any three correctly located and labelled locations should be accepted.

Q18. Factors: deforestation for agricultural/urban expansion, overgrazing, and unregulated mining; measures include afforestation, controlled grazing, and land reclamation techniques. OR: By raw material — agro-based/mineral-based; by size — small-scale/large-scale; by ownership — public/private/joint/cooperative sector, with relevant examples for each.

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. Community government (a form of power sharing among social/community groups).

Q20. A reserved constituency is an electoral constituency where the candidate must belong to a specific social group (such as Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes), ensuring representation for that group in the legislature.

Q21. The Election Commission of India.

Q22. A one-party dominant system exists when several parties compete in elections, but usually only one major party wins and governs consistently over a long period, as was the case with the Congress party in India for several decades after independence.

Q23. (A)

Q24. India adopted Hindi as an official language but did not impose it exclusively, allowing states to use their own official regional languages; the reorganisation of states largely along linguistic lines; and the eighth schedule officially recognises multiple regional languages.

Q25. National parties contest elections across the whole country and secure a minimum vote share in several states as per Election Commission rules; state/regional parties primarily contest and gain influence in one or a few specific states; national parties often have a broader ideological base compared to region-specific concerns of state parties.

Q26. Factors include: perceived lack of internal democracy within parties, allegations of corruption/dynastic politics, and failure to offer meaningful choices between parties on important policy issues.

Q27. Political parties are essential for organising elections, forming governments, and representing diverse public opinions; challenges include lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession in leadership, and issues around transparency in political funding. OR: Federalism divides power between different levels of government, allowing diverse regions/communities to have a degree of self-governance, helping manage India's vast linguistic, cultural and regional diversity.

PART D — ECONOMICS

Q28. Literacy rate is the percentage of the population above a certain age (usually 7 years and above) who can read and write with understanding, used as an indicator of educational development.

Q29. Primary sector.

Q30. Microcredit refers to small loans provided, often without collateral, to low-income individuals or groups (such as through Self-Help Groups), to help them start or expand small income-generating activities.

Q31. Any correctly named global MNC, e.g., a well-known multinational company operating across several countries.

Q32. (A)

Q33. Limitations include: it does not show income distribution/inequality within the population; it ignores non-monetary aspects of well-being like health and education; and it does not account for environmental sustainability of the growth achieved.

Q34. Reasons: credit enables investment in agriculture/business expansion, helps people manage unforeseen expenses without falling into distress, and can be a critical factor in escaping cycles of poverty when accessed at reasonable, formal rates.

Q35. Roles: setting rules for international trade among member countries, working towards reducing trade barriers/tariffs, and providing a forum for resolving trade disputes between nations.

Q36. HDI is a composite measure of development based on life expectancy, education levels, and per capita income, providing a broader picture of well-being than income alone, which does not capture health or educational achievements of a population. OR: Outsourcing involves a company hiring an outside firm/service provider (often in another country) to carry out certain tasks; India's IT and business process outsourcing (BPO) sector has grown substantially due to skilled English-speaking workforce and lower costs, driven by globalisation.

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