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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 3 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is organised subject-wise into four parts: Part I — History, Part II — Geography, Part III — Political Science, and Part IV — Economics, each carrying 20 marks.
2. Each part contains four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ, 1 mark each), Section 2 — Short Answer (3 marks each), Section 3 — Long Answer (5 marks), and Section 4 — Source/Case-Based Question (4 marks).
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions; attempt only one option wherever a choice is given.
4. All questions are compulsory unless an internal choice is indicated.
5. Marks for each question are indicated against it. Answer within the suggested word limit wherever applicable.
6. This is a practice paper prepared in line with the CBSE Class X Social Science (087) design for the 2026-27 session.
PART I — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Which term describes the sense of collective belonging that arises among people who see themselves as part of one nation? 1
Q2. Which revolutionary event in Europe is closely associated with the spread of the idea of nationalism in the early 19th century? 1
Q3. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which city? 1
Q4. Which industrialist group's interests were significantly served by the Swadeshi call to boycott foreign goods during the freedom movement? 1
Q5. Name the pact under which Mahatma Gandhi agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q7
Q6. Explain any three ways in which the First World War created conditions favourable for the growth of a mass nationalist movement in India. 3
Q7. Describe the role of the industrial working class in the Civil Disobedience Movement. 3
— OR —
Explain how the Indian business classes reacted to the call for boycott of foreign goods during the national movement. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q8
Q8. Describe the various forms in which the idea of nationalism was expressed through the identification of India with "Bharat Mata," folklore, and icons/symbols during the freedom struggle. 5
— OR —
Explain the differing responses of various social groups — peasants, workers, and business classes — to the Non-Cooperation Movement, giving reasons for these differences. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q9
Q9. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
In April 1919, thousands of people gathered peacefully at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, an enclosed ground with very few exits, to protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of local leaders. General Dyer ordered his troops to open fire on the unarmed crowd without warning, resulting in the deaths of hundreds of men, women and children. The massacre shocked the nation and is widely regarded as a turning point that intensified anti-colonial sentiment across India, contributing directly to the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(i) In which city did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place? (1)
(ii) What was the immediate reason for the crowd gathering at Jallianwala Bagh? (1)
(iii) Explain how the massacre affected Indian public opinion and the course of the national movement. (2)
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PART II — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which type of resource, based on the stock available, can be replenished by natural processes within a relatively short time? 1
Q11. Which crop, requiring high temperature, high humidity and rainfall of over 200 cm, is best grown on the western coastal region of India? 1
Q12. India's first modern textile mill was established in which city? 1
Q13. Which of the following is considered the most efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport for carrying bulky goods over long distances? 1
Q14. Name the pollutant primarily responsible for water pollution when untreated sewage and industrial effluents are directly discharged into rivers. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q16
Q15. Explain any three characteristics of the alluvial soils found in the northern plains of India. 3
Q16. Describe any three features of the Green Revolution and its impact on Indian agriculture. 3
— OR —
Explain any three reasons for the declining significance of railways for short-distance transport in India. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q17
Q17. Describe the role and importance of the "life-lines of national economy" — transport, communication and trade — in India's development. 5
— OR —
Explain the classification of industries on the basis of ownership, raw material, and size, with suitable examples of each. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q18
Q18. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
India's mineral wealth is unevenly distributed across the country, with certain regions being particularly rich in specific minerals. The Chotanagpur plateau region, spanning parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, is especially rich in iron ore, coal, and manganese, making it one of the most important mineral belts in the country. This concentration of resources has led to the establishment of major iron and steel plants in this region, taking advantage of the proximity of raw materials to reduce transportation costs.
(i) Name any one state that is part of the mineral-rich Chotanagpur plateau region. (1)
(ii) Name any two minerals found in abundance in this region. (1)
(iii) Explain why major iron and steel plants have been established close to this mineral belt. (2)
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PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Which system of power-sharing divides power among different social groups, often based on community or religion? 1
Q20. Which of the following is a key feature that distinguishes a federal system from a unitary system of government? 1
Q21. Panchayati Raj institutions in India are an example of which tier of government? 1
Q22. Which of the following best describes a "political party"? 1
Q23. A political system in which political competition is restricted to one dominant party, with little space for meaningful opposition, is called a: 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q25
Q24. Explain any three ways in which linguistic and religious diversity has been accommodated within India's federal system. 3
Q25. Describe any three functions performed by political parties in a democracy. 3
— OR —
Explain any three challenges commonly faced by political parties in a democracy today. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q26
Q26. Explain the constitutional provisions that make India a federal country, and describe how these provisions safeguard the powers of the states. 5
— OR —
Discuss the major challenges to democracy in contemporary times and suggest measures to strengthen democratic institutions. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q27
Q27. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
India's federal system divides governmental power between the Union government and the state governments, with certain subjects like defence and foreign affairs under the exclusive control of the Union, some subjects like agriculture and police under the states, and a few subjects like education and forests under joint control of both levels. This division of power, along with an independent judiciary to resolve disputes between different levels of government, has helped India manage its immense linguistic, religious, and regional diversity within a single political framework.
(i) Name one subject that falls under the exclusive control of the Union government. (1)
(ii) Name one subject that falls under the joint control of both the Union and state governments. (1)
(iii) Explain how India's federal structure has helped manage the country's diversity. (2)
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PART IV — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Which of the following best defines "per capita income"? 1
Q29. Which sector of the economy includes activities related to mining, agriculture, and fishing, based directly on natural resources? 1
Q30. Which of the following indicators is used to measure poverty in terms of a minimum acceptable standard of living? 1
Q31. Name the organisation, headed by the government of India, responsible for regulating the banking system and controlling the supply of money in the economy. 1
Q32. What term is used to describe the increasing interconnection of a country's economy with economies of other countries through trade and investment? 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q34
Q33. Explain any three reasons why average/per capita income alone is not considered a fully adequate indicator of a country's development. 3
Q34. Describe any three characteristics that distinguish the organised sector from the unorganised sector of the Indian economy. 3
— OR —
Explain any three ways in which the government can help promote employment growth in rural areas. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q35
Q35. Explain the meaning and significance of "sustainable development," and discuss why it is considered important, particularly with reference to the use of natural resources like groundwater. 5
— OR —
Discuss the role of multinational corporations (MNCs) in the process of globalisation, and explain how they influence production and investment decisions in countries like India. 5
Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q36
Q36. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4
Consumer movements in India have gained strength over the decades, leading to the enactment of laws such as the Consumer Protection Act, which give buyers the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices, exploitation, and defective goods or services. Consumer courts have been established at the district, state, and national levels to hear complaints and provide compensation where appropriate. Despite this progress, a large section of Indian consumers, especially in rural areas, remains unaware of their rights, limiting the full effectiveness of these legal protections.
(i) Name the Act that gives Indian consumers the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices. (1)
(ii) At how many levels have consumer courts been established in India, according to the passage? (1)
(iii) Explain why a lack of consumer awareness limits the effectiveness of consumer protection laws, even when such laws exist. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Analysis
1. Subject-wise (Part-wise) Marks Distribution
| Part | Subject | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|
| I | History | 20 |
| II | Geography | 20 |
| III | Political Science | 20 |
| IV | Economics | 20 |
| Total | 80 | |
2. Section-wise Typology (per Part)
| Section | Question Type | No. of Questions | Marks each | Marks per Part |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Very Short Answer (MCQ) | 5 | 1 | 5 |
| 2 | Short Answer | 2 | 3 | 6 |
| 3 | Long Answer | 1 | 5 | 5 |
| 4 | Source-Based (1+1+2) | 1 | 4 | 4 |
| Total per Part | 20 | |||
The same section-wise pattern (5+6+5+4 = 20 marks) is repeated identically across all four subject-wise parts, giving a paper total of 80 marks.
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Description | Approx. Marks | Percentage |
|---|---|---|---|
| Remembering & Understanding | Recall of facts, definitions, direct concept-based questions | 40 | 50% |
| Applying | Application of concepts to explain, illustrate, or describe situations | 24 | 30% |
| Analysing, Evaluating & Creating | Source-based reasoning, comparison, and evaluative long-answer questions | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Internal choices are provided in Q7, Q8, Q16, Q17, Q25, Q26, Q34 and Q35 — one question with a choice in Section 2 and Section 3 of every part, i.e. approximately one-third of the total questions across the paper.
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Answer Key
PART I — HISTORY
Q1. (B) Q2. (B) Q3. (B) Q4. (B) Q5. (B)
Q6. WWI led to forced recruitment causing resentment; sharp price rise/inflation created widespread economic hardship; increased taxes and war-related loans burdened the population, creating fertile ground for mass discontent and mobilisation (any three).
Q7. Industrial workers participated through strikes and by joining protest marches, though their involvement in the Civil Disobedience Movement was selective, as some workers absorbed nationalist ideas without fully accepting the Congress's core programme, especially regarding labour issues. OR: Indian business classes, organised through bodies like the Indian Industries and Commerce Congress and FICCI, largely supported the Swadeshi call as it protected them from foreign competition, though they later grew cautious about prolonged mass mobilisation that could threaten stability.
Q8. Nationalism was expressed through the personification of India as "Bharat Mata," a mother goddess figure evoking devotion and sacrifice; through revival of folklore, folk songs and traditions to build a shared cultural identity; and through icons like the tricolour flag, which became rallying symbols of the movement. OR: Peasants participated hoping for relief from land revenue and oppressive rents; workers joined seeking better wages and conditions, though the Congress leadership was cautious about fully embracing labour demands; business classes largely supported boycott of foreign goods for economic self-interest but grew wary as the movement grew increasingly assertive.
Q9. (i) Amritsar, Punjab. (ii) The crowd gathered to protest peacefully against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of local nationalist leaders. (iii) The massacre outraged Indians across the country, discrediting British claims of just rule, turning many previously moderate Indians towards active resistance, and directly fuelling support for Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement.
PART II — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (B) Q11. (B) Q12. (B) Q13. (B) Q14. (A)
Q15. Alluvial soils are highly fertile due to regular deposition by rivers, are rich in potash and lime but often deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus, and are ideal for crops like wheat, rice and sugarcane (any three points).
Q16. The Green Revolution led to a major increase in foodgrain production, especially wheat; it relied heavily on high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, fertilisers and irrigation; but it was regionally concentrated (mainly Punjab, Haryana, western UP), leading to imbalanced agricultural growth (any three points). OR: Railways face competition from roads for short distances due to roads' door-to-door connectivity, lower cost for small loads, and greater flexibility in reaching remote or difficult terrain that railways cannot easily access.
Q17. Transport enables movement of raw materials, finished goods and people, connecting production and consumption centres; communication (including mass media) spreads information rapidly, aiding both economic coordination and social/political awareness; trade connects domestic markets with the global economy, contributing significantly to national income and employment. OR: By ownership: public sector (e.g., SAIL) vs private sector (e.g., TISCO); by raw material: agro-based (e.g., cotton textiles) vs mineral-based (e.g., iron and steel); by size: small-scale vs large-scale industries, each contributing differently to employment and output.
Q18. (i) Jharkhand (or Odisha/Chhattisgarh). (ii) Iron ore and coal (or manganese). (iii) Locating steel plants near these mineral deposits reduces the cost and time of transporting bulky raw materials, making production more economical and efficient.
PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B) Q20. (B) Q21. (C) Q22. (A) Q23. (C)
Q24. Formation of linguistic states based on the languages spoken in each region; constitutional recognition of multiple official languages; special provisions and autonomy for certain regions to protect their cultural and religious identity (any three).
Q25. Political parties contest elections and form governments; they act as a link between people and government, aggregating diverse demands into coherent policies; they provide access to welfare schemes and represent people's interests in the legislature (any three functions).
OR: Challenges: lack of internal democracy within parties, dynastic succession of leadership, growing influence of money and muscle power, and lack of meaningful choice due to declining ideological differences (any three).
Q26. India's constitution establishes two (or three, including local) levels of government with clearly defined powers under the Union, State, and Concurrent lists; changes to fundamental federal provisions require both Parliament and a majority of state legislatures to agree, and an independent judiciary resolves disputes between different levels — together these provisions protect the powers and autonomy of the states. OR: Challenges include the influence of money and criminalisation in politics, weakening of political institutions, and persistence of social inequalities; measures to strengthen democracy include electoral reforms, stronger anti-corruption mechanisms, and greater citizen participation and awareness.
Q27. (i) Defence (or foreign affairs/currency). (ii) Education (or forests). (iii) By clearly dividing subjects between different levels and allowing regional and linguistic groups a degree of self-governance within a unified constitutional framework, India's federal structure has accommodated its immense diversity while maintaining national unity.
PART IV — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B) Q29. (A) Q30. (B) Q31. (B) Q32. (B)
Q33. Per capita income is only an average, hiding inequalities in income distribution within a country; it does not reflect non-material aspects of well-being such as health, education, or environmental quality; and it can rise even while a large section of the population remains deprived (any three points).
Q34. The organised sector offers job security, regulated working hours, and social security benefits, unlike the unorganised sector, which is largely unregulated, offers no job security, and often provides low, irregular wages (any three points of comparison). OR: Government can promote rural employment by investing in rural infrastructure (roads, irrigation), setting up small-scale industries, and expanding schemes like MGNREGA to guarantee wage employment (any three measures).
Q35. Sustainable development refers to meeting present development needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs; it is important because resources like groundwater are finite and can be exhausted by over-extraction, so responsible, regulated use is necessary to ensure resources remain available for the long term. OR: MNCs set up production units and offices across countries, often in collaboration with local companies, bringing capital, technology, and access to global markets, and significantly influencing production locations and investment decisions based on where costs are lowest and infrastructure is most favourable.
Q36. (i) The Consumer Protection Act. (ii) Three levels — district, state and national. (iii) Even with strong laws in place, consumers who are unaware of their rights are unlikely to file complaints or seek redressal when wronged, meaning the protections offered by the law remain underutilised, particularly among less-informed sections of society such as rural consumers.
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Detailed Marking Scheme
General Marking Guidelines
• Section 1 (MCQ): 1 mark for the correct option only; no partial credit.
• Section 2 (3-mark questions): 1 mark per valid point, up to a maximum of 3; each point should include a brief explanation, not just a label.
• Section 3 (5-mark questions): marks awarded for depth and range of explanation, relevant examples, and a well-organised answer covering multiple dimensions of the question.
• Section 4 (Source-based, 4 marks): each sub-part is marked independently as indicated (1, 1, 2); the 2-mark sub-part requires both a valid point and a clear explanation.
• Alternative correct points or examples not listed in the model answer should be given full credit if relevant and accurate.
Part-wise Mark Allocation Recap
| Part | Section 1 | Section 2 | Section 3 | Section 4 | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| I — History | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| II — Geography | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| III — Political Science | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| IV — Economics | 5 | 6 | 5 | 4 | 20 |
| Grand Total | 20 | 24 | 20 | 16 | 80 |
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