CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Bank –1 100 MCQ – 2026-27

CBSE CLASS X SOCIAL SCIENCE

Question Bank – 100 High-Level MCQs | Session 2026–27

Subject: Social ScienceType: MCQ / Assertion–ReasonTotal Questions: 100Difficulty: High-Level / Competency Based

Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option. Questions are designed for conceptual clarity, application, analysis and CBSE-style competency practice.

History — Question Bank

Q1. The French Revolution transferred sovereignty from the monarchy to the nation. Which principle was central to this change?

(A) Popular sovereignty(B) Divine right of kings(C) Feudal privilege(D) Absolute monarchy

Q2. Which development most directly encouraged economic unity among the German states before political unification?

(A) Zollverein(B) Treaty of Versailles(C) Congress of Vienna(D) Holy Alliance

Q3. Which symbol was commonly used to represent the German nation during the nineteenth-century nationalist movement?

(A) Germania(B) Marianne(C) Bharat Mata(D) Liberty Bell

Q4. What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?

(A) Restore conservative order in Europe(B) Create democratic republics everywhere(C) End all monarchies(D) Promote universal suffrage

Q5. Which ideology strongly supported individual freedom and equality before law?

(A) Liberalism(B) Conservatism(C) Absolutism(D) Feudalism

Q6. Who played the leading role in the unification of Italy through diplomacy and statecraft?

(A) Cavour(B) Garibaldi(C) Mazzini(D) Metternich

Q7. Which event is associated with the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement in India?

(A) Dandi March(B) Champaran Satyagraha(C) Khilafat Movement(D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

Q8. Why was salt chosen as a symbol of protest by Gandhiji?

(A) It was an essential commodity affected by colonial taxation(B) It was consumed only by rich people(C) It was mainly exported to Europe(D) It had no connection with daily life

Q9. Which event led Gandhiji to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(A) Chauri Chaura incident(B) Jallianwala Bagh incident(C) Simon Commission(D) Dandi March

Q10. Which group was especially affected by the decline in agricultural prices during the Great Depression?

(A) Peasants(B) Colonial officials(C) European aristocrats(D) Urban judges

Q11. Which factor helped transform the world economy in the nineteenth century?

(A) Steamships and railways(B) Decline of transport(C) End of international trade(D) Closure of ports

Q12. Indentured labour was commonly described by workers as a system resembling what?

(A) A new system of slavery(B) Free citizenship(C) Democratic employment(D) Permanent land ownership

Q13. Which technology greatly increased the speed of printing during the Industrial Revolution?

(A) Power-driven printing press(B) Spinning Jenny(C) Steam plough(D) Telegraph only

Q14. Why did industrialists use advertisements and attractive packaging?

(A) To create demand and distinguish products(B) To reduce consumer choice(C) To stop competition(D) To end mass production

Q15. Which invention improved textile production by allowing multiple spindles to operate simultaneously?

(A) Spinning Jenny(B) Steam engine(C) Flying shuttle(D) Telegraph

Q16. Which development helped create a wider reading public in the nineteenth century?

(A) Cheaper printed books(B) Decline of literacy(C) Ban on newspapers(D) Closure of printing presses

Q17. How did print culture support social reform in India?

(A) It spread reformist ideas and public debate(B) It prevented discussion(C) It eliminated vernacular languages(D) It restricted reading to rulers

Q18. Why did colonial governments attempt to control newspapers?

(A) Newspapers could influence public opinion(B) Newspapers were used only for entertainment(C) They reduced political awareness(D) They had no political influence

Q19. Which movement brought the issue of indigo cultivators' exploitation into national attention?

(A) Indigo revolt(B) Swadeshi Movement(C) Quit India Movement(D) Khilafat Movement

Q20. Which idea best explains nationalism as an imagined community?

(A) People develop a shared sense of belonging to a nation(B) Only rulers define national identity(C) Nations exist without common identity(D) Nationalism rejects all cultural symbols

Q21. Assertion: The Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians. Reason: It allowed detention without trial in certain circumstances.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q22. Assertion: Print culture encouraged debate. Reason: Printed texts could circulate ideas among larger groups.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q23. Which group formed a significant part of the nationalist leadership in Europe?

(A) Educated middle class(B) Only feudal peasants(C) Only monarchs(D) Only soldiers

Q24. Why did Indian merchants initially support the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(A) They wanted protection from colonial economic policies(B) They wanted unrestricted British imports(C) They opposed Indian industries(D) They wanted to abolish trade

Q25. Which factor contributed to the growth of nationalism in India?

(A) Shared anti-colonial struggle(B) Expansion of colonial privileges(C) Decline of political awareness(D) Complete regional isolation

Geography — Question Bank

Q26. Which type of resource is available in a region but has not yet been fully utilised?

(A) Potential resource(B) Developed resource(C) Stock(D) Reserve

Q27. Why is resource planning essential in India?

(A) Resources are unevenly distributed and need sustainable management(B) Resources are unlimited(C) All resources are equally available(D) Technology has no role

Q28. Which soil is especially suitable for cotton cultivation?

(A) Black soil(B) Laterite soil(C) Arid soil(D) Mountain soil

Q29. Which soil develops under high temperature and heavy rainfall with intense leaching?

(A) Laterite soil(B) Black soil(C) Alluvial soil(D) Arid soil

Q30. Which farming type combines crop cultivation with animal rearing?

(A) Mixed farming(B) Plantation farming(C) Primitive subsistence(D) Commercial grain farming

Q31. Which crop is mainly associated with black soil?

(A) Cotton(B) Tea(C) Jute(D) Rubber

Q32. Which crop is generally considered a kharif crop?

(A) Rice(B) Wheat(C) Gram(D) Mustard

Q33. Which crop requires a warm and wet climate and is widely grown in West Bengal and Assam?

(A) Tea(B) Wheat(C) Gram(D) Bajra

Q34. Which mineral is the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry?

(A) Iron ore(B) Mica(C) Bauxite(D) Limestone only

Q35. Bauxite is the principal ore of which metal?

(A) Aluminium(B) Iron(C) Copper(D) Manganese

Q36. Why are mineral-based industries often located near mining areas?

(A) Bulky raw materials increase transport costs(B) Markets are irrelevant(C) Minerals are perishable(D) Labour is absent elsewhere

Q37. Which industry is called a basic industry because it supplies materials to many other industries?

(A) Iron and steel(B) Tourism(C) Retail(D) Banking

Q38. Which source of energy is renewable?

(A) Solar energy(B) Coal(C) Petroleum(D) Natural gas

Q39. Which method helps conserve water in agricultural areas?

(A) Rainwater harvesting(B) Uncontrolled groundwater extraction(C) Flood irrigation everywhere(D) Deforestation

Q40. What is a major cause of land degradation?

(A) Deforestation(B) Afforestation(C) Contour ploughing(D) Terracing

Q41. Which transport mode is suitable for carrying bulky goods over long distances at low cost?

(A) Waterways(B) Airways(C) Personal cars(D) Helicopters

Q42. Which port is located on India's western coast?

(A) Kandla(B) Paradip(C) Haldia(D) Chennai

Q43. Which communication service has transformed the speed of information exchange?

(A) Internet(B) Bullock cart(C) Traditional barter(D) Manual postal copying

Q44. Which industry is agro-based?

(A) Cotton textile(B) Iron and steel(C) Cement(D) Aluminium

Q45. Which industry is mineral-based?

(A) Iron and steel(B) Sugar(C) Cotton textile(D) Jute

Q46. Assertion: Renewable energy is important for India. Reason: It reduces dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q47. Assertion: Manufacturing is important for economic development. Reason: It adds value to raw materials and creates employment.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q48. Which method reduces soil erosion on hill slopes?

(A) Terrace farming(B) Overgrazing(C) Deforestation(D) Strip mining

Q49. Which sector provides services such as transport, banking and communication?

(A) Tertiary sector(B) Primary sector(C) Agricultural sector only(D) Mining sector

Q50. Why is manufacturing important to agriculture?

(A) It provides machinery, inputs and processing facilities(B) It eliminates agricultural production(C) It reduces market access(D) It prevents irrigation

Political Science — Question Bank

Q51. Which form of power sharing is seen among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary?

(A) Horizontal power sharing(B) Vertical power sharing(C) Community government(D) Coalition only

Q52. Which arrangement represents vertical power sharing?

(A) Union, State and local governments(B) Legislature and Judiciary(C) Political parties only(D) Pressure groups only

Q53. What is the main prudential reason for power sharing?

(A) It reduces conflict and political instability(B) It concentrates power(C) It ends elections(D) It weakens minorities

Q54. What is the moral reason for power sharing?

(A) It is the spirit of democratic participation(B) It increases authoritarianism(C) It removes citizen rights(D) It ends representation

Q55. Which country adopted accommodation to manage linguistic diversity?

(A) Belgium(B) Sri Lanka(C) Nepal only(D) Myanmar

Q56. What was a major consequence of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?

(A) Alienation and conflict among communities(B) Complete social harmony(C) End of political conflict(D) Abolition of language differences

Q57. What is federalism?

(A) A system with constitutional division of powers among levels of government(B) A system with only one government(C) Rule by judges(D) Military rule

Q58. Which feature is essential to federalism?

(A) Constitutional division of powers(B) No state governments(C) No judiciary(D) No elections

Q59. Why were states reorganised largely on linguistic lines in India?

(A) To accommodate linguistic identities(B) To abolish regional identities(C) To weaken democracy(D) To end local government

Q60. What is decentralisation?

(A) Transfer of power to local levels(B) Concentration of power at the centre(C) Abolition of municipalities(D) Removal of elections

Q61. Which body represents rural local government at village level?

(A) Gram Panchayat(B) Lok Sabha(C) Rajya Sabha(D) Supreme Court

Q62. Which body represents urban local government?

(A) Municipality(B) Gram Sabha only(C) Zila Parishad only(D) Parliament

Q63. What is the main function of political parties?

(A) Contest elections and form governments(B) Conduct court trials(C) Prepare school textbooks only(D) Control the army

Q64. Which challenge refers to concentration of leadership within families?

(A) Dynastic succession(B) Federalism(C) Decentralisation(D) Power sharing

Q65. Which challenge refers to lack of meaningful internal elections within parties?

(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Federalism(C) Coalition government(D) Decentralisation

Q66. What is a coalition government?

(A) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(B) Government by judges(C) Government without elections(D) Government by one permanent ruler

Q67. Why are elections important in democracy?

(A) They enable citizens to choose representatives(B) They eliminate accountability(C) They prevent participation(D) They abolish political parties

Q68. Which reform can improve political party functioning?

(A) Regular internal elections(B) Concentration of all power in one leader(C) Secret unlimited funding(D) Family-only membership

Q69. Assertion: Federalism can strengthen national unity. Reason: It allows regional diversity to be accommodated within a common political system.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q70. Assertion: Political parties are necessary for representative democracy. Reason: They organise elections, aggregate interests and help form governments.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q71. Which institution conducts elections in India?

(A) Election Commission of India(B) Finance Commission(C) Planning Commission(D) NITI Aayog only

Q72. Which feature strengthens federalism?

(A) Independent judiciary to settle disputes(B) Abolition of state powers(C) Single-level government(D) No constitutional division

Q73. Why is local government important?

(A) Local problems can be addressed with local knowledge(B) It removes citizen participation(C) It eliminates accountability(D) It centralises decisions

Q74. Which democratic practice helps protect minority interests?

(A) Power sharing(B) Majoritarian domination(C) Political exclusion(D) Centralisation

Q75. Which political development strengthened regional parties in India?

(A) Coalition politics(B) End of state elections(C) Abolition of linguistic states(D) One-party rule everywhere

Economics — Question Bank

Q76. Which indicator is a non-income measure of development?

(A) Literacy rate(B) Per capita income only(C) Total exports only(D) Bank deposits only

Q77. Why is average income used to compare countries?

(A) It controls for differences in population size(B) All countries have equal population(C) It measures only health(D) It measures only education

Q78. Which public facility strongly influences quality of life?

(A) Healthcare(B) Luxury imports(C) Private cars only(D) Advertising

Q79. Which sector directly uses natural resources?

(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Information sector only

Q80. Which sector converts raw materials into finished goods?

(A) Secondary sector(B) Primary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Household sector only

Q81. Which activity belongs to the tertiary sector?

(A) Banking(B) Mining(C) Farming(D) Manufacturing

Q82. What is disguised unemployment?

(A) More workers engaged in an activity than actually required(B) No one works in an activity(C) Only seasonal employment(D) Employment in banks

Q83. Which sector has expanded significantly with growth in demand for services?

(A) Tertiary sector(B) Primary sector only(C) Subsistence sector(D) Mining only

Q84. What is collateral?

(A) An asset pledged as security for a loan(B) Interest earned on savings(C) A bank salary(D) A government tax

Q85. Which is a formal source of credit?

(A) Commercial bank(B) Moneylender(C) Trader(D) Relative

Q86. Why is formal credit generally preferred?

(A) It is regulated and usually follows established terms(B) It never requires repayment(C) It is always interest-free(D) It is available only to rich people

Q87. What can happen when borrowers depend heavily on informal credit?

(A) They may face high interest and debt traps(B) They always become richer(C) Loans become automatically subsidised(D) All risks disappear

Q88. What is globalisation?

(A) Greater integration of production and markets across countries(B) Complete closure of markets(C) End of international trade(D) Only local production

Q89. What has enabled globalisation significantly?

(A) Improved transport and communication technology(B) Decline of communication(C) Closure of ports(D) Reduction in information flow

Q90. What is an MNC?

(A) A company that owns or controls production in more than one country(B) A local shop only(C) A government school(D) A village cooperative only

Q91. Why do MNCs locate production in different countries?

(A) To access markets, skills, resources and lower production costs(B) To avoid all markets(C) To eliminate technology(D) To prevent investment

Q92. Which group may face intense competition due to globalisation?

(A) Small producers(B) Only foreign governments(C) Only consumers(D) Only banks

Q93. How can consumers benefit from globalisation?

(A) Greater variety and competitive prices(B) Fewer choices(C) Higher monopoly in every market(D) No access to technology

Q94. Which institution regulates the monetary system and supervises banks in India?

(A) Reserve Bank of India(B) Election Commission(C) Supreme Court(D) Gram Panchayat

Q95. Why do banks accept deposits?

(A) They use deposits as a major source for lending(B) To stop all lending(C) To eliminate savings(D) To prevent investment

Q96. Assertion: Development cannot be judged by income alone. Reason: Health, education and public facilities also affect well-being.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q97. Assertion: Formal credit can support economic development. Reason: It can provide loans for productive investment under regulated conditions.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q98. Which organisation is associated with global trade rules?

(A) World Trade Organization(B) Election Commission(C) Reserve Bank of India(D) Gram Panchayat

Q99. Why can globalisation create challenges for small producers?

(A) They may face competition from larger firms and MNCs(B) They receive automatic monopoly(C) Competition disappears(D) Markets become completely local

Q100. Which policy can make globalisation more inclusive?

(A) Skill development and support for small producers(B) Complete closure of markets(C) Removal of all infrastructure(D) Ban on technology

ANSWER KEY

Q1: (A)   Q2: (A)   Q3: (A)   Q4: (A)   Q5: (A)   Q6: (A)   Q7: (A)   Q8: (A)   Q9: (A)   Q10: (A)
Q11: (A)   Q12: (A)   Q13: (A)   Q14: (A)   Q15: (A)   Q16: (A)   Q17: (A)   Q18: (A)   Q19: (A)   Q20: (A)
Q21: (A)   Q22: (A)   Q23: (A)   Q24: (A)   Q25: (A)   Q26: (A)   Q27: (A)   Q28: (A)   Q29: (A)   Q30: (A)
Q31: (A)   Q32: (A)   Q33: (A)   Q34: (A)   Q35: (A)   Q36: (A)   Q37: (A)   Q38: (A)   Q39: (A)   Q40: (A)
Q41: (A)   Q42: (A)   Q43: (A)   Q44: (A)   Q45: (A)   Q46: (A)   Q47: (A)   Q48: (A)   Q49: (A)   Q50: (A)
Q51: (A)   Q52: (A)   Q53: (A)   Q54: (A)   Q55: (A)   Q56: (A)   Q57: (A)   Q58: (A)   Q59: (A)   Q60: (A)
Q61: (A)   Q62: (A)   Q63: (A)   Q64: (A)   Q65: (A)   Q66: (A)   Q67: (A)   Q68: (A)   Q69: (A)   Q70: (A)
Q71: (A)   Q72: (A)   Q73: (A)   Q74: (A)   Q75: (A)   Q76: (A)   Q77: (A)   Q78: (A)   Q79: (A)   Q80: (A)
Q81: (A)   Q82: (A)   Q83: (A)   Q84: (A)   Q85: (A)   Q86: (A)   Q87: (A)   Q88: (A)   Q89: (A)   Q90: (A)
Q91: (A)   Q92: (A)   Q93: (A)   Q94: (A)   Q95: (A)   Q96: (A)   Q97: (A)   Q98: (A)   Q99: (A)   Q100: (A)

CBSE Class X Social Science Question Bank | 100 MCQs | Session 2026–27 | High-Level / Competency-Based Practice