CBSE CLASS X – SOCIAL SCIENCE
QUESTION BANK – 3
100 HIGH-LEVEL MCQs | SESSION 2026–27
Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option.
PART A — HISTORY
Q1.
Which development best explains why the French Revolution challenged the old European social order?
A. It promoted equality before law and citizenship
B. It strengthened hereditary privileges
C. It restored feudal dues
D. It abolished all forms of trade
Q2.
The idea of a nation-state in nineteenth-century Europe was closely associated with:
A. A common national identity and political unity
B. Permanent dynastic rule
C. Expansion of feudal privileges
D. Isolation from neighbouring regions
Q3.
Why did conservatives oppose many liberal-nationalist movements after 1815?
A. They feared political instability and revolutionary change
B. They wanted universal suffrage immediately
C. They supported republican revolutions everywhere
D. They wanted to abolish monarchy completely
Q4.
The Zollverein was significant because it:
A. Removed internal trade barriers among many German states
B. Created the French Empire
C. Ended Italian nationalism
D. Established the League of Nations
Q5.
Which statement best describes the role of culture in the growth of nationalism?
A. Folk songs, language and symbols created a shared sense of identity
B. Culture had no connection with political ideas
C. Only military victories created nations
D. Nationalism rejected all cultural traditions
Q6.
Which leader is associated with the idea of Young Italy?
A. Giuseppe Mazzini
B. Otto von Bismarck
C. Metternich
D. Cavour
Q7.
German unification was largely achieved under the leadership of:
A. Otto von Bismarck
B. Mazzini
C. Garibaldi alone
D. Louis XVI
Q8.
The Frankfurt Parliament of 1848 attempted to:
A. Create a unified German nation through an elected assembly
B. Restore feudalism
C. Divide Germany permanently
D. Establish colonial rule in India
Q9.
The Rowlatt Act was opposed because it:
A. Allowed detention without trial and curtailed civil liberties
B. Granted complete freedom of the press
C. Ended colonial taxation
D. Established universal adult franchise
Q10.
Why did Gandhiji choose salt as an important symbol of resistance?
A. Salt was essential for ordinary people and was subject to colonial control
B. Salt was consumed only by wealthy Indians
C. Salt had no economic significance
D. Salt was produced only in Britain
Q11.
The Dandi March demonstrated the principle of:
A. Civil disobedience against an unjust colonial law
B. Armed revolution against all institutions
C. Support for colonial taxation
D. Withdrawal from public life
Q12.
Which event most directly led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
A. Chauri Chaura incident
B. Dandi March
C. Simon Commission
D. Poona Pact
Q13.
Why did some business groups support the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A. They expected relief from colonial trade restrictions and economic policies
B. They wanted greater imports of foreign goods
C. They opposed Indian industries
D. They wanted to strengthen the salt monopoly
Q14.
The participation of women in nationalist movements mainly demonstrated that:
A. Nationalism could mobilise people across social groups
B. Only men could participate in politics
C. Women rejected all political activity
D. National movements were limited to cities
Q15.
The Great Depression affected Indian peasants severely because:
A. Agricultural prices fell while many peasants still had revenue and debt obligations
B. Agricultural prices doubled everywhere
C. Colonial taxes disappeared
D. India became independent immediately
Q16.
Which factor helped integrate the nineteenth-century world economy?
A. Railways, steamships and expanding international trade
B. Declining transport technology
C. Complete closure of ports
D. End of migration
Q17.
Indentured labourers were taken to plantations mainly because:
A. Employers sought cheap labour after the abolition of slavery
B. They were elected representatives
C. They owned the plantations
D. They were military officers
Q18.
Why did food become an important component of global trade?
A. Improved transport enabled movement of food over long distances
B. Food production became completely local
C. International migration stopped
D. Railways were abandoned
Q19.
The invention of the printing press contributed to:
A. Wider circulation of ideas and information
B. Decline of reading
C. End of public debate
D. Restriction of books to monarchs
Q20.
Why did print culture become a concern for colonial governments?
A. Printed material could spread criticism and political ideas
B. Printed material could not reach readers
C. Newspapers had no political impact
D. Books were used only for religious rituals
Q21.
Vernacular newspapers in India helped:
A. Create public discussion in Indian languages
B. Eliminate Indian languages
C. Stop social reform debates
D. Support only colonial officials
Q22.
Which factor made printed books increasingly accessible to ordinary readers?
A. Cheaper production and expanding literacy
B. Higher printing costs only
C. Decline of schools
D. Complete ban on newspapers
Q23.
Assertion (A): Nationalism developed differently in different regions of Europe.
Reason (R): Political, social and cultural conditions varied from region to region.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q24.
Assertion (A): Print encouraged debate in nineteenth-century India.
Reason (R): Printed texts could circulate reformist and political arguments widely.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q25.
Which statement best explains the significance of nationalism in India?
A. It provided a common anti-colonial platform while different groups retained different interests
B. It removed all social and economic differences
C. It was limited to one region
D. It rejected all cultural symbols
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q26.
Resource planning is necessary in India mainly because:
A. Resources are unevenly distributed and need sustainable management
B. Resources are unlimited
C. All regions have identical resources
D. Technology cannot affect resource use
Q27.
Which condition makes a resource potentially usable in future?
A. Availability of technology and knowledge to develop it
B. Complete absence of demand
C. Permanent prohibition
D. Lack of information
Q28.
Which soil is known for its capacity to retain moisture?
A. Black soil
B. Laterite soil
C. Arid soil
D. Forest soil
Q29.
Alluvial soil is especially important for agriculture because it:
A. Is generally fertile and supports intensive cultivation
B. Contains no nutrients
C. Occurs only in deserts
D. Cannot support crops
Q30.
Which agricultural practice is most appropriate for conserving soil on slopes?
A. Terrace cultivation
B. Overgrazing
C. Deforestation
D. Uncontrolled ploughing down the slope
Q31.
Which crop is strongly associated with the black soil region of India?
A. Cotton
B. Tea
C. Jute
D. Rubber
Q32.
Which crop is mainly grown during the rabi season?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Cotton
D. Jute
Q33.
Why are plantation crops generally grown on large estates?
A. They require organised management and processing for commercial production
B. They are grown only for household consumption
C. They do not require labour
D. They cannot be transported
Q34.
Which mineral is essential for the iron and steel industry?
A. Iron ore
B. Mica
C. Limestone only
D. Salt
Q35.
Why is mica important for electrical and electronic industries?
A. It has excellent insulating properties
B. It is a liquid fuel
C. It is used as a food crop
D. It is a source of petroleum
Q36.
Which industry is called a basic industry?
A. Iron and steel
B. Tourism
C. Retail trade
D. Banking
Q37.
Why is the cotton textile industry concentrated in certain regions?
A. Availability of raw material, labour, markets, transport and other factors
B. Only because of rainfall
C. Only because of forests
D. Only because of mineral deposits
Q38.
Which source of energy is inexhaustible on a human time scale?
A. Solar energy
B. Coal
C. Petroleum
D. Natural gas
Q39.
Why should India increase renewable energy use?
A. To reduce dependence on exhaustible fuels and environmental damage
B. To increase coal consumption only
C. To stop technological development
D. To eliminate electricity generation
Q40.
Rainwater harvesting primarily helps in:
A. Groundwater recharge and water conservation
B. Increasing soil erosion
C. Reducing groundwater levels
D. Increasing deforestation
Q41.
Which activity can cause land degradation if not properly managed?
A. Mining
B. Afforestation
C. Contour ploughing
D. Shelter belts
Q42.
Which transport is most suitable for carrying bulky goods over long distances at relatively low cost?
A. Railways
B. Airways
C. Private cars
D. Motorcycles
Q43.
Which port is located on the eastern coast of India?
A. Paradip
B. Kandla
C. Mormugao
D. Mumbai
Q44.
Which factor is especially important for locating a software technology industry?
A. Skilled human resources and communication infrastructure
B. Proximity to coal mines only
C. Availability of cotton only
D. Dependence on river water only
Q45.
Which industry is an agro-based industry?
A. Sugar
B. Iron and steel
C. Cement
D. Aluminium
Q46.
Which measure can reduce soil erosion in areas affected by wind?
A. Shelter belts
B. Deforestation
C. Overgrazing
D. Open mining
Q47.
Assertion (A): Manufacturing is important for economic development.
Reason (R): It adds value to raw materials and generates employment.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q48.
Assertion (A): Water conservation is necessary for sustainable development.
Reason (R): Over-extraction can reduce groundwater availability.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q49.
Which factor has made international trade and communication faster?
A. Modern transport and digital communication
B. Decline of ports
C. Reduction in information technology
D. Closure of markets
Q50.
Why is the tertiary sector important to manufacturing?
A. Transport, banking, communication and trade support production
B. It replaces all raw materials
C. It eliminates markets
D. It prevents investment
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q51.
Power sharing among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is called:
A. Horizontal power sharing
B. Vertical power sharing
C. Community government
D. Coalition sharing
Q52.
Power sharing between Union and State governments represents:
A. Vertical power sharing
B. Horizontal power sharing
C. Party sharing
D. Social division
Q53.
The prudential reason for power sharing is that it:
A. Reduces conflict and increases political stability
B. Concentrates authority
C. Removes elections
D. Weakens representation
Q54.
The moral reason for power sharing is based on:
A. The spirit and values of democracy
B. The rule of one person
C. Military authority
D. Majoritarian domination
Q55.
Belgium solved its linguistic conflict mainly through:
A. Accommodation and power sharing
B. Majoritarian domination
C. Suppression of minorities
D. Abolition of elections
Q56.
What was a major result of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?
A. Alienation of Tamil communities and prolonged conflict
B. Complete national integration
C. End of ethnic tensions
D. Abolition of political parties
Q57.
Federalism means:
A. Constitutional division of power among different levels of government
B. Power concentrated in one government
C. Rule by the military
D. No division of powers
Q58.
Which is a key feature of federalism?
A. Two or more levels of government with constitutionally assigned powers
B. Only one level of government
C. No written rules
D. No independent judiciary
Q59.
Why did India reorganise many states on linguistic lines?
A. To accommodate linguistic identities within the federal system
B. To eliminate regional languages
C. To abolish state governments
D. To weaken democracy
Q60.
Decentralisation means:
A. Transfer of power to local governments
B. Concentration of power at the centre
C. Abolition of local bodies
D. Removal of elections
Q61.
Which is a rural local government institution?
A. Gram Panchayat
B. Municipal Corporation
C. Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha
Q62.
Which institution is responsible for urban local administration?
A. Municipality
B. Gram Panchayat
C. Zila Parishad only
D. Parliament
Q63.
Political parties are necessary because they:
A. Contest elections, form governments and shape public policies
B. Conduct judicial trials
C. Control all media
D. Replace the Constitution
Q64.
Which challenge occurs when leadership remains concentrated within a family?
A. Dynastic succession
B. Federalism
C. Decentralisation
D. Power sharing
Q65.
Which challenge refers to insufficient internal elections in political parties?
A. Lack of internal democracy
B. Coalition politics
C. Federalism
D. Community government
Q66.
A coalition government is generally formed when:
A. No single party has sufficient majority and parties agree to govern together
B. There are no elections
C. One party is permanently banned
D. Judges form the government
Q67.
Which reform can strengthen political parties?
A. Greater transparency in political funding
B. Unlimited secret donations
C. No internal elections
D. Family-only leadership
Q68.
Why are pressure groups different from political parties?
A. Pressure groups usually seek to influence policy without directly forming governments
B. Pressure groups always contest every election
C. Political parties never seek power
D. Pressure groups form the judiciary
Q69.
Which institution conducts elections to Parliament and State Legislatures?
A. Election Commission of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Supreme Court only
D. Reserve Bank of India
Q70.
Why is an independent judiciary important in a federal system?
A. It can interpret the Constitution and settle disputes between levels of government
B. It abolishes elections
C. It controls all political parties
D. It removes state governments
Q71.
Assertion (A): Federalism can accommodate diversity.
Reason (R): Regional governments can address region-specific interests within constitutional limits.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q72.
Assertion (A): Political parties are essential to representative democracy.
Reason (R): They organise electoral competition and provide policy choices to voters.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q73.
Which measure improves local democracy most directly?
A. Regular elections and participation in local bodies
B. Removing local councils
C. Centralising all decisions
D. Ending public meetings
Q74.
Why does power sharing strengthen democracy?
A. It gives different groups and institutions a role in decision-making
B. It gives unlimited power to one group
C. It removes accountability
D. It prevents representation
Q75.
Which development strengthened coalition politics in India?
A. Rise of regional parties and recognition of diverse interests
B. Abolition of regional parties
C. End of state politics
D. Removal of elections
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q76.
Which indicator directly measures the average income of a country?
A. Per capita income
B. Literacy rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Life expectancy
Q77.
Why is per capita income not sufficient to judge development?
A. It does not show distribution of income or access to health and education
B. It measures only literacy
C. It always shows equality
D. It measures environmental quality
Q78.
Which is an important public facility?
A. Government healthcare
B. Luxury cars
C. Private jewellery
D. Advertising
Q79.
Human development is better assessed when we consider:
A. Income, health, education and other quality-of-life indicators
B. Income alone
C. Exports alone
D. Population alone
Q80.
Which sector is directly dependent on natural resources?
A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. Service sector only
Q81.
Which activity belongs to the secondary sector?
A. Manufacturing
B. Banking
C. Fishing
D. Farming
Q82.
Which activity belongs to the tertiary sector?
A. Transport
B. Mining
C. Crop cultivation
D. Manufacturing
Q83.
Disguised unemployment is commonly found when:
A. More people work on a task than are actually required
B. No worker is available
C. Workers are all highly productive
D. Employment exists only in banks
Q84.
Why has the tertiary sector grown rapidly in India?
A. Rising demand for services and support to other sectors
B. Decline of all services
C. End of communication
D. Closure of markets
Q85.
Which is a formal source of credit?
A. Bank
B. Moneylender
C. Trader
D. Relative
Q86.
Collateral means:
A. An asset used as security against a loan
B. A type of deposit
C. A bank employee
D. A government subsidy
Q87.
Why can informal credit become expensive?
A. It may involve high interest rates and unfavourable terms
B. It is always interest-free
C. It is always regulated
D. It never requires repayment
Q88.
Self-help groups mainly help members by:
A. Pooling savings and facilitating access to small loans
B. Abolishing all banks
C. Providing unlimited free money
D. Ending savings
Q89.
Globalisation refers to:
A. Increasing integration of economies through trade, investment and technology
B. Complete isolation of economies
C. End of international markets
D. Only village-level production
Q90.
Which factor has accelerated globalisation?
A. Rapid improvement in transport and information technology
B. Decline of communication
C. Reduction in trade
D. Closure of ports
Q91.
MNC stands for:
A. Multinational Corporation
B. National Monetary Council
C. Modern National Committee
D. Multi-Nation Consumer
Q92.
Why do MNCs invest in different countries?
A. To access markets, labour, resources, skills and production advantages
B. To avoid production
C. To stop trade
D. To eliminate technology
Q93.
A major benefit of globalisation for consumers is:
A. Greater choice and competitive products
B. Complete elimination of competition
C. Fewer product varieties
D. No technological change
Q94.
A major challenge of globalisation for small producers can be:
A. Competition from large domestic and international firms
B. Guaranteed monopoly
C. No competition
D. Automatic government protection
Q95.
The Reserve Bank of India supervises:
A. The functioning of formal banking institutions
B. School examinations
C. Election campaigns
D. Local road construction
Q96.
Why do banks keep a portion of deposits with themselves?
A. To meet withdrawal requirements and maintain liquidity
B. To stop all lending
C. To eliminate deposits
D. To prevent savings
Q97.
Assertion (A): Development should be sustainable.
Reason (R): Present resource use should not compromise the ability of future generations to meet their needs.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q98.
Assertion (A): Globalisation has increased competition in Indian markets.
Reason (R): Liberalisation enabled greater entry and interaction with foreign producers.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q99.
Which institution is associated with international trade rules?
A. World Trade Organization
B. Election Commission of India
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Gram Panchayat
Q100.
Which policy can help small producers benefit from globalisation?
A. Technology, skill development, infrastructure and access to credit
B. Complete isolation from markets
C. Removal of training
D. Ban on all technology
ANSWER KEY
| Q. | Ans. | Q. | Ans. | Q. | Ans. | Q. | Ans. |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 26 | A | 51 | A | 76 | A |
| 2 | A | 27 | A | 52 | A | 77 | A |
| 3 | A | 28 | A | 53 | A | 78 | A |
| 4 | A | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | A |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | A | 80 | A |
| 6 | A | 31 | A | 56 | A | 81 | A |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | A |
| 8 | A | 33 | A | 58 | A | 83 | A |
| 9 | A | 34 | A | 59 | A | 84 | A |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | A | 85 | A |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | A | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | A | 62 | A | 87 | A |
| 13 | A | 38 | A | 63 | A | 88 | A |
| 14 | A | 39 | A | 64 | A | 89 | A |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | A | 90 | A |
| 16 | A | 41 | A | 66 | A | 91 | A |
| 17 | A | 42 | A | 67 | A | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | A | 68 | A | 93 | A |
| 19 | A | 44 | A | 69 | A | 94 | A |
| 20 | A | 45 | A | 70 | A | 95 | A |
| 21 | A | 46 | A | 71 | A | 96 | A |
| 22 | A | 47 | A | 72 | A | 97 | A |
| 23 | A | 48 | A | 73 | A | 98 | A |
| 24 | A | 49 | A | 74 | A | 99 | A |
| 25 | A | 50 | A | 75 | A | 100 | A |
