CBSE CLASS X – SOCIAL SCIENCE
QUESTION BANK – 5
HIGH-LEVEL / HOTS / COMPETENCY-BASED MCQs
Session 2026–27 | Total Questions: 100
PART A — HISTORY
Q1.
A historian argues that the French Revolution transformed subjects into citizens. Which development best supports this argument?
A. Introduction of the idea of equal political rights
B. Restoration of hereditary privileges
C. Strengthening of absolute monarchy
D. Expansion of feudal dues
Q2.
Why did nationalism become a powerful force in nineteenth-century Europe?
A. It connected political aspirations with a shared sense of identity
B. It completely rejected cultural identity
C. It strengthened dynastic rule everywhere
D. It prevented political participation
Q3.
If a state has a common constitution, common currency and common laws but different regional identities, which process could strengthen its national unity?
A. Political and economic integration
B. Suppression of all regional cultures
C. Restoration of feudal privileges
D. Complete political decentralisation without coordination
Q4.
Why did the conservative regimes established after 1815 fear liberal-nationalist movements?
A. They threatened traditional political authority
B. They supported absolute monarchy
C. They opposed constitutionalism
D. They wanted to strengthen aristocratic privileges
Q5.
Which situation best represents the connection between nationalism and culture?
A. Folk traditions and language being used to construct a common national identity
B. Local languages being completely abandoned
C. Political movements rejecting literature
D. Governments banning national symbols
Q6.
Why was the Zollverein significant in the German context?
A. It encouraged economic unity among German states
B. It strengthened political divisions among German states
C. It restored Austrian control over all German states
D. It ended industrial development
Q7.
What does the role of Bismarck in German unification indicate?
A. National unification could also be achieved through state power and diplomacy
B. Nationalism always depended only on popular revolutions
C. Military power had no political role
D. Economic integration was irrelevant
Q8.
Why did the Frankfurt Parliament fail to achieve its objective?
A. It faced opposition from monarchies and lacked sufficient political power
B. It had complete support from all European rulers
C. Germany had already been unified
D. It rejected the idea of a constitution
Q9.
The unification of Italy involved Mazzini, Cavour and Garibaldi. What does this suggest?
A. Different political strategies could contribute to a common nationalist goal
B. Italian nationalism was controlled by one leader
C. Revolutionary nationalism had no role
D. Diplomacy was irrelevant
Q10.
Which factor helped transform nationalism from an elite idea into a mass movement?
A. Expansion of political participation and communication
B. Restriction of newspapers
C. Decline of literacy
D. Strengthening of feudalism
Q11.
Why did Gandhiji emphasise non-violence in the Indian national movement?
A. It enabled large sections of people to participate in resistance
B. It restricted political participation
C. It strengthened colonial authority
D. It rejected mass mobilisation
Q12.
A group refuses to obey an unjust colonial law peacefully. Which method of struggle is illustrated?
A. Civil disobedience
B. Armed rebellion
C. Imperial cooperation
D. Constitutional monarchy
Q13.
Why did the Salt March become a powerful national symbol?
A. It connected a simple everyday commodity with resistance to colonial authority
B. Salt was used only by wealthy people
C. It was primarily a military campaign
D. It demanded restoration of princely privileges
Q14.
Why did different social groups interpret the Civil Disobedience Movement differently?
A. Their economic and social interests were not identical
B. They all had exactly the same demands
C. Only political leaders participated
D. Economic issues had no connection with nationalism
Q15.
A peasant wants lower revenue while an industrialist wants protection from imported goods. Both support nationalism. What does this demonstrate?
A. Nationalism could unite groups having different immediate interests
B. Nationalism required identical economic demands
C. Industrialists opposed national movements
D. Peasants had no political role
Q16.
Why was the Non-Cooperation Movement withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident?
A. Gandhiji considered the use of violence inconsistent with the movement's principles
B. The colonial government had granted independence
C. The movement had achieved all its objectives
D. The national movement had lost all public support
Q17.
Why did the Great Depression affect Indian peasants severely?
A. Agricultural prices fell while debt and revenue obligations remained
B. Agricultural prices increased dramatically
C. Rural taxation disappeared
D. Export demand increased continuously
Q18.
Which development most directly contributed to the nineteenth-century global economy?
A. Steamships, railways and improved communication
B. Closure of international ports
C. Decline of industrialisation
D. End of international migration
Q19.
Why did European countries recruit indentured labour from Asia and other regions?
A. Plantation and other industries needed inexpensive labour
B. They wanted to provide political representation
C. They wanted to end plantation production
D. They wanted to reduce international trade
Q20.
A commodity is produced in one country, processed in another and sold globally. What does this illustrate?
A. Interdependence of the global economy
B. Economic isolation
C. Decline of international markets
D. Localisation of production
Q21.
Why did print culture contribute to social reform?
A. It enabled reformers to circulate ideas to a wider audience
B. It prevented public discussion
C. It restricted knowledge to rulers
D. It reduced literacy
Q22.
Why were colonial governments concerned about nationalist newspapers?
A. They could influence public opinion and criticise colonial policies
B. Newspapers could not reach readers
C. Newspapers had no political influence
D. Printed material was completely controlled by colonial authorities
Q23.
Assertion (A): Nationalism in Europe was closely connected with the idea of popular sovereignty.
Reason (R): Nationalists often demanded that political authority should represent the people.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q24.
Assertion (A): Print helped create a wider public sphere in India.
Reason (R): Newspapers and journals allowed people to discuss political and social issues.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q25.
Which statement best captures the nature of the Indian national movement?
A. It brought diverse groups together against colonial rule despite differences in their interests
B. It represented only industrial workers
C. It had no connection with economic issues
D. It rejected mass participation
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q26.
A region possesses abundant resources but has poor infrastructure and limited technological capability. What can be concluded?
A. Resources alone cannot guarantee economic development
B. The region has no resource potential
C. Technology has no role in development
D. Infrastructure is unrelated to resource use
Q27.
Why is resource planning important in India?
A. Resources are unevenly distributed and require careful management
B. Resources are unlimited
C. All regions possess identical resources
D. Resource consumption has no environmental effects
Q28.
A farmer uses excessive chemical inputs and repeatedly cultivates the same land without conservation. What is the likely long-term result?
A. Soil degradation and declining fertility
B. Permanent improvement in soil quality
C. Elimination of soil erosion
D. Unlimited agricultural productivity
Q29.
Which practice is most suitable for reducing soil erosion on steep slopes?
A. Terrace farming
B. Overgrazing
C. Deforestation
D. Strip mining
Q30.
Why is black soil particularly suitable for cotton?
A. It has a high moisture-retaining capacity
B. It is highly sandy
C. It cannot retain water
D. It is found only in high-altitude regions
Q31.
A farmer grows wheat during the cool and relatively dry winter season. Which crop season is involved?
A. Rabi
B. Kharif
C. Zaid
D. Plantation
Q32.
Why is irrigation essential in many parts of India?
A. Rainfall is seasonal and unevenly distributed
B. India receives uniform rainfall throughout the year
C. All crops are drought resistant
D. Irrigation eliminates the need for fertile soil
Q33.
Why are plantation crops generally grown on large estates?
A. They require organised production, processing and commercial management
B. They are grown only for household consumption
C. They require no labour
D. They cannot be marketed commercially
Q34.
An iron and steel plant is established near iron ore and coal-producing regions. Which factor is primarily influencing its location?
A. Availability of raw materials
B. Tourism potential
C. Population density alone
D. Climate alone
Q35.
Why is the iron and steel industry considered a basic industry?
A. It supplies materials required by many other industries
B. It produces only consumer goods
C. It depends only on agriculture
D. It does not support industrialisation
Q36.
Why are renewable energy sources increasingly important?
A. Fossil fuels are exhaustible and their use creates environmental concerns
B. Fossil fuels are unlimited
C. Renewable sources cannot be developed
D. Energy demand is disappearing
Q37.
A city adopts rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge structures. Which objective is being promoted?
A. Sustainable water management
B. Excessive groundwater extraction
C. Water wastage
D. Industrial pollution
Q38.
Why can mining cause environmental degradation?
A. It may disturb land, forests and water resources
B. It always increases forest cover
C. It has no impact on land
D. It automatically improves groundwater quality
Q39.
A textile factory is established near cotton-producing areas, markets and transport facilities. What does this demonstrate?
A. Industrial location depends on several factors
B. Raw materials are irrelevant
C. Markets do not influence industries
D. Transport has no economic significance
Q40.
Why is manufacturing important for economic development?
A. It adds value to raw materials and generates employment
B. It eliminates agriculture
C. It reduces all economic activity
D. It has no relationship with trade
Q41.
Which transport mode is generally most suitable for moving bulky goods over long distances at relatively low cost?
A. Railways
B. Airways
C. Motorcycles
D. Private cars
Q42.
Why are ports important to India's economy?
A. They facilitate international trade and movement of bulk goods
B. They are used only for tourism
C. They replace all inland transport
D. They prevent foreign trade
Q43.
Why is digital communication important for modern economic activities?
A. It enables rapid exchange of information across large distances
B. It reduces access to information
C. It prevents international trade
D. It eliminates the need for technology
Q44.
A factory introduces cleaner production technology and treats wastewater before discharge. Which principle is being followed?
A. Sustainable industrial development
B. Resource exploitation
C. Uncontrolled industrialisation
D. Environmental neglect
Q45.
Why can industrialisation lead to regional development?
A. It creates employment, infrastructure and markets
B. It always reduces employment
C. It eliminates transport requirements
D. It prevents urbanisation
Q46.
Which measure would be most effective in controlling wind erosion?
A. Shelter belts
B. Deforestation
C. Overgrazing
D. Excessive ploughing
Q47.
Assertion (A): Conservation of resources is necessary for sustainable development.
Reason (R): Uncontrolled exploitation can reduce resource availability for future generations.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q48.
Assertion (A): Transport and communication are called lifelines of the economy.
Reason (R): They facilitate the movement of goods, people, information and services.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q49.
Which combination is most important for modern industrial development?
A. Infrastructure, skilled labour, markets and technology
B. Rainfall alone
C. Forests alone
D. Population alone
Q50.
Why does the service sector support both agriculture and manufacturing?
A. Banking, transport, communication, storage and trade facilitate production and distribution
B. Services replace all physical production
C. Services have no economic role
D. Manufacturing does not need services
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q51.
A constitution divides authority among the legislature, executive and judiciary. Which form of power sharing is this?
A. Horizontal power sharing
B. Vertical power sharing
C. Community power sharing
D. Coalition power sharing
Q52.
Why is power sharing considered desirable from a prudential point of view?
A. It reduces the possibility of conflict and political instability
B. It concentrates power in one institution
C. It removes political competition
D. It eliminates accountability
Q53.
Belgium adopted power-sharing arrangements mainly to:
A. Accommodate linguistic and regional differences
B. Establish majority domination
C. Suppress minority communities
D. Centralise all authority
Q54.
What was one major consequence of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?
A. Increased alienation among Tamil communities
B. Complete social harmony
C. Elimination of ethnic differences
D. Strengthening of minority representation
Q55.
Which situation represents vertical power sharing?
A. Division of authority among Union, State and Local governments
B. Division among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
C. Coalition between political parties
D. Representation of social groups
Q56.
Why is constitutional division of powers important in a federation?
A. It prevents arbitrary concentration of authority
B. It gives unlimited power to the central government
C. It eliminates state governments
D. It makes elections unnecessary
Q57.
India's linguistic reorganisation of states demonstrated that:
A. Regional identities can be accommodated within federalism
B. Regional languages must be suppressed
C. Federalism requires one language
D. States cannot have distinct identities
Q58.
Why does decentralisation improve democratic participation?
A. People can participate more directly in decisions affecting their local communities
B. All authority shifts to the Union government
C. Local elections are abolished
D. Local institutions become accountable only to officials
Q59.
Which feature is essential for a federal system?
A. Constitutional division of powers between levels of government
B. Complete centralisation
C. Absence of constitutional safeguards
D. One-level government
Q60.
A Gram Sabha approves a local development project after discussing it with villagers. Which principle is demonstrated?
A. Participatory democracy
B. Majoritarianism
C. Centralisation
D. Judicial supremacy
Q61.
Why is political representation of women important?
A. It can make decision-making more inclusive
B. It automatically eliminates every form of discrimination
C. It ends political competition
D. It prevents men from participating
Q62.
Which example best demonstrates caste in politics?
A. Parties considering caste composition while selecting candidates
B. Complete disappearance of caste identities
C. Political parties ignoring all social groups
D. Abolition of elections
Q63.
Why can caste-based political mobilisation have both positive and negative effects?
A. It can raise demands for equality but may also deepen social divisions
B. It always eliminates discrimination
C. It has no political consequences
D. It always strengthens national unity
Q64.
Which principle is central to secular democracy?
A. Equal treatment of citizens irrespective of religion
B. Official preference for one religion
C. Religious discrimination
D. Suppression of minority beliefs
Q65.
Which is an essential function of political parties?
A. Contest elections and form governments
B. Conduct judicial proceedings
C. Replace constitutional institutions
D. Control all independent organisations
Q66.
A political party has no regular internal elections and decisions are taken by a small group. Which challenge is illustrated?
A. Lack of internal democracy
B. Federalism
C. Decentralisation
D. Power sharing
Q67.
When important party positions are repeatedly occupied by members of one family, the challenge is:
A. Dynastic succession
B. Federalism
C. Coalition politics
D. Judicial review
Q68.
Why is the influence of money and muscle power a challenge to democracy?
A. It can distort electoral competition and political equality
B. It increases transparency
C. It guarantees equal participation
D. It eliminates corruption
Q69.
What distinguishes pressure groups from political parties?
A. Pressure groups generally seek to influence government policies rather than form governments
B. Pressure groups always contest elections
C. Political parties never contest elections
D. Pressure groups control the judiciary
Q70.
Why are democratic governments expected to be accountable?
A. Citizens should be able to question decisions and change representatives
B. Leaders should never be questioned
C. Elections should be avoided
D. Public opinion should have no role
Q71.
Assertion (A): Federalism can strengthen national unity.
Reason (R): It allows regional aspirations to be expressed within a constitutional framework.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q72.
Assertion (A): Political parties are necessary for representative democracy.
Reason (R): They provide voters with choices and organise the process of government formation.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q73.
Which reform would most directly improve internal democracy in political parties?
A. Regular internal elections and transparent membership procedures
B. Permanent leadership by one family
C. Secret decision-making
D. Removal of party members
Q74.
Why does democracy not automatically eliminate economic inequality?
A. Political equality and economic equality are different dimensions of society
B. Elections automatically equalise wealth
C. Democracy eliminates all social differences
D. Political rights have no relationship with development
Q75.
Which situation best represents an accountable democratic government?
A. Citizens can question leaders and replace them through elections
B. Leaders remain in power permanently
C. Elections are suspended
D. Public criticism is prohibited
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q76.
Two countries have similar average incomes but different literacy rates and life expectancies. What does this indicate?
A. Development cannot be measured by income alone
B. Income is the only valid indicator
C. Health has no connection with development
D. Education is irrelevant
Q77.
Why is per capita income used when comparing countries?
A. It provides an average income measure that accounts for population size
B. It shows income inequality perfectly
C. It directly measures health
D. It measures environmental sustainability
Q78.
A state increases average income but continues to have poor sanitation and healthcare. What conclusion is justified?
A. Higher income does not automatically guarantee overall human development
B. The state is fully developed
C. Public facilities have no importance
D. Income is irrelevant to development
Q79.
Which situation represents sustainable development?
A. Meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet their needs
B. Using resources without limits
C. Maximising present consumption regardless of environmental consequences
D. Completely stopping economic activity
Q80.
A farmer produces cotton, a textile factory converts it into cloth, and a transport company delivers the finished product. Which sectors are represented?
A. Primary, secondary and tertiary
B. Primary only
C. Secondary only
D. Tertiary only
Q81.
Which situation represents disguised unemployment?
A. Five people work on a farm where the same output could be produced by three
B. A factory hires additional skilled workers for expansion
C. A company creates new jobs
D. A farmer hires workers during harvesting
Q82.
Why is the tertiary sector increasingly important in India?
A. Growing demand for services and its role in supporting other sectors
B. Decline of all services
C. Elimination of manufacturing
D. Reduction in communication needs
Q83.
Which activity belongs to the tertiary sector?
A. Banking
B. Mining
C. Crop cultivation
D. Manufacturing
Q84.
A borrower pledges property to obtain a bank loan. What is the property called?
A. Collateral
B. Deposit
C. Currency
D. Capital
Q85.
Why are formal sources of credit generally considered safer?
A. They operate under regulation and established lending rules
B. They never charge interest
C. They never require repayment
D. They operate without documentation
Q86.
How can high-interest informal credit create a debt trap?
A. Interest accumulates rapidly and repayment becomes difficult
B. Loans become automatically interest-free
C. The borrower receives unlimited income
D. Informal lenders cancel all debts
Q87.
What is a major advantage of Self-Help Groups?
A. They encourage savings and improve access to small loans
B. They eliminate all formal banks
C. They provide unlimited free credit
D. They discourage saving
Q88.
Why is money considered an important medium of exchange?
A. It removes the need for double coincidence of wants
B. It can be used only for investment
C. It prevents trade
D. It eliminates production
Q89.
A multinational company establishes a production unit in India and exports its products. Which process is represented?
A. Globalisation
B. Economic isolation
C. Localisation
D. Deindustrialisation
Q90.
Which factor has accelerated globalisation most significantly?
A. Information technology and improved transport
B. Decline in communication
C. Closure of international markets
D. Reduction in technological development
Q91.
Why do multinational companies establish production units in different countries?
A. To benefit from markets, resources, skills and cost advantages
B. To stop international trade
C. To eliminate all competition
D. To avoid production
Q92.
Which is a possible benefit of globalisation for consumers?
A. Greater choice and competitive prices
B. Complete elimination of choices
C. Decline in product quality in every case
D. Elimination of technological innovation
Q93.
Why can globalisation create difficulties for small producers?
A. They may face competition from large companies with greater resources
B. They always receive monopoly protection
C. Competition disappears
D. Technology becomes unavailable to large firms
Q94.
Which measure can help small producers face global competition?
A. Improved technology, infrastructure, skills and credit
B. Complete market isolation
C. Ban on modern technology
D. Removal of training programmes
Q95.
A consumer discovers that a purchased product is defective and seeks compensation. Which right is most relevant?
A. Right to seek redressal
B. Right to vote
C. Right to education
D. Right to freedom of religion
Q96.
Why is consumer awareness essential in a market economy?
A. It helps consumers make informed decisions and resist exploitation
B. It prevents consumers from comparing products
C. It increases dependence on sellers
D. It eliminates the need for information
Q97.
Assertion (A): Public facilities contribute significantly to human development.
Reason (R): Facilities such as education, healthcare and sanitation improve people's capabilities and quality of life.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q98.
Assertion (A): Formal credit can support productive economic activities.
Reason (R): Regulated loans can provide borrowers access to credit under defined terms and conditions.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A
B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q99.
Which situation best demonstrates globalisation of production?
A. Different stages of production are distributed across countries according to economic advantages
B. All production takes place within one village
C. International trade completely disappears
D. Production becomes independent of technology
Q100.
Which statement provides the most balanced assessment of globalisation?
A. It creates opportunities through trade and technology while also increasing competition for vulnerable producers
B. It benefits every producer equally
C. It harms every consumer equally
D. It has no effect on employment or production
ANSWER KEY — QUESTION BANK 5
| Q | Ans. | Q | Ans. | Q | Ans. | Q | Ans. |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 26 | A | 51 | A | 76 | A |
| 2 | A | 27 | A | 52 | A | 77 | A |
| 3 | A | 28 | A | 53 | A | 78 | A |
| 4 | A | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | A |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | A | 80 | A |
| 6 | A | 31 | A | 56 | A | 81 | A |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | A | 82 | A |
| 8 | A | 33 | A | 58 | A | 83 | A |
| 9 | A | 34 | A | 59 | A | 84 | A |
| 10 | A | 35 | A | 60 | A | 85 | A |
| 11 | A | 36 | A | 61 | A | 86 | A |
| 12 | A | 37 | A | 62 | A | 87 | A |
| 13 | A | 38 | A | 63 | A | 88 | A |
| 14 | A | 39 | A | 64 | A | 89 | A |
| 15 | A | 40 | A | 65 | A | 90 | A |
| 16 | A | 41 | A | 66 | A | 91 | A |
| 17 | A | 42 | A | 67 | A | 92 | A |
| 18 | A | 43 | A | 68 | A | 93 | A |
| 19 | A | 44 | A | 69 | A | 94 | A |
| 20 | A | 45 | A | 70 | A | 95 | A |
| 21 | A | 46 | A | 71 | A | 96 | A |
| 22 | A | 47 | A | 72 | A | 97 | A |
| 23 | A | 48 | A | 73 | A | 98 | A |
| 24 | A | 49 | A | 74 | A | 99 | A |
| 25 | A | 50 | A | 75 | A | 100 | A |
