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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 3 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into three parts — Part A (Chemistry, 25 Marks), Part B (Biology, 30 Marks) and Part C (Physics, 25 Marks).
2. Each part is further divided into four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (including objective-type and Assertion–Reason questions), Section 2 — Short Answer, Section 3 — Long Answer, and Section 4 — Case/Source-based integrated question.
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions across the paper. Attempt only one option where a choice is given.
4. Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
5. Write balanced chemical equations wherever applicable.
6. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
PART A — CHEMISTRY (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q8
Q1. Name the type of reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single product. 1
Q2. Write the chemical formula of washing soda. 1
Q3. State the pH value of a neutral solution. 1
Q4. Name the process by which unsaturated hydrocarbons are converted into saturated hydrocarbons using a catalyst. 1
Q5. Identify the oxidising agent in the reaction: MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂. 1
Q6. Write the common name and chemical formula of quick lime. 1
Q7. Assertion (A): A freshly cleaned iron nail becomes coated with a reddish-brown substance when kept in copper sulphate solution.
Reason (R): Iron is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. 1
Reason (R): Iron is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. 1
Q8. Assertion (A): Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
Reason (R): Acids show acidic behaviour only in the presence of water, since ionisation of an acid to release H⁺ ions requires water. 1
Reason (R): Acids show acidic behaviour only in the presence of water, since ionisation of an acid to release H⁺ ions requires water. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q9 to Q12
Q9. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of sodium with water, and state the type of reaction. 2
Q10. What is a "combustion reaction"? Give an example of an exothermic combustion reaction with a balanced equation. 2
Q11. State two differences between rusting (a chemical change) and a physical change, using rusting of iron as an example. 2
— OR —
Explain, with reason, why respiration is considered an exothermic process. 2
Q12. Draw the electron dot structure of methane (CH₄), and state the type of bond present in it. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q13
Q13. (a) What are esters? Write the equation for the preparation of an ester from ethanol and ethanoic acid, along with the catalyst used. (3)
(b) State one chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid. (2) 5
(b) State one chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Briefly explain the process of extraction of metals of low, medium and high reactivity from their ores, giving one example of each category. (3)
(b) Why is sodium metal kept immersed in kerosene oil? (2)
(b) Why is sodium metal kept immersed in kerosene oil? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q14
Q14. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Corrosion is the gradual deterioration of metals due to reaction with substances in their environment, such as moisture, acids and gases present in the air. Iron corrodes to form a reddish-brown flaky substance called rust, a hydrated form of iron oxide. Unlike the protective oxide layer formed on metals like aluminium, rust does not stick firmly to the metal surface and flakes off, exposing fresh metal to further corrosion and eventually weakening the structure. Several methods, such as galvanisation (coating iron with a thin layer of zinc), painting, and alloying, are used to prevent or slow down corrosion.
14.1 What is rust chemically composed of? (1)
14.2 Why does rusting continue to damage iron over time, unlike the oxide layer formed on aluminium? (1)
14.3 Name and briefly explain one method used to prevent the corrosion of iron. (2)
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PART B — BIOLOGY (30 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q15 to Q22
Q15. Name the enzyme present in saliva that breaks down starch. 1
Q16. Define the term "stimulus". 1
Q17. Name the male and female reproductive parts of a flower. 1
Q18. What term is used for an organism capable of reproducing both sexually and asexually? 1
Q19. In pea plants, a cross is made between a pure tall (TT) plant and a pure dwarf (tt) plant. What will be the phenotype of the F1 generation? 1
Q20. Name one renewable and one non-renewable source of energy. 1
Q21. Assertion (A): The rapid folding of leaves in the sensitive plant (Mimosa) upon touch is not a growth-related movement.
Reason (R): This movement occurs very quickly and does not depend on the growth of the plant part. 1
Reason (R): This movement occurs very quickly and does not depend on the growth of the plant part. 1
Q22. Assertion (A): The testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity, in the scrotum.
Reason (R): Sperm production requires a temperature slightly lower than normal body temperature. 1
Reason (R): Sperm production requires a temperature slightly lower than normal body temperature. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q23 to Q26
Q23. Name the male and female reproductive hormones in humans, and state one function of each. 2
Q24. Differentiate between binary fission and multiple fission, giving one example of each. 2
— OR —
Why is the transfer of genetic material to progeny important for a reproducing organism? 2
Q25. What is meant by "peristaltic movement"? Where does it occur in the human alimentary canal? 2
Q26. State the significance of contraceptive methods in human reproduction, and name any two commonly used methods. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks each) — Q27 to Q28
Q27. (a) With a labelled diagram, describe the structure of a nephron. (3)
(b) Explain the role of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in regulating water reabsorption in the kidney. (2) 5
(b) Explain the role of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in regulating water reabsorption in the kidney. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the process of double fertilisation in flowering plants. (3)
(b) What changes occur in a flower after fertilisation? (2)
(b) What changes occur in a flower after fertilisation? (2)
Q28. (a) Briefly explain the hormonal control of the menstrual cycle in human females. (3)
(b) Name two sexually transmitted diseases, and state one method of prevention. (2) 5
(b) Name two sexually transmitted diseases, and state one method of prevention. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) With a labelled diagram, describe the structure of the human brain and the functions of its three main parts. (3)
(b) How does the brain help control involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing? (2)
(b) How does the brain help control involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q29
Q29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Waste generated by human activities can be broadly classified as biodegradable, which can be broken down by microorganisms into simpler, harmless substances, and non-biodegradable, which persists in the environment for a long time without breaking down naturally. Improper disposal of non-biodegradable waste, such as plastics, poses a serious threat to ecosystems, as it accumulates in soil and water bodies, harming wildlife and disrupting natural nutrient cycles. Sustainable waste management practices, including segregation at source, recycling, and composting of biodegradable waste, are essential to reduce the environmental burden of waste.
29.1 What is the key difference between biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste? (1)
29.2 Name one commonly used non-biodegradable material that poses a threat to ecosystems. (1)
29.3 Suggest two sustainable practices, based on the passage, that can help reduce the environmental impact of waste. (2)
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PART C — PHYSICS (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q30 to Q37
Q30. Define the "power of a lens". State its SI unit. 1
Q31. Name the type of mirror used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles. Give one reason for its use. 1
Q32. State the cause of hypermetropia (far-sightedness). 1
Q33. Write the SI unit of electrical resistivity. 1
Q34. Calculate the current flowing through a resistor of 10 Ω when a potential difference of 5 V is applied across it. 1
Q35. Name the rule used to determine the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field. 1
Q36. Assertion (A): The image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and of the same size as the object.
Reason (R): In a plane mirror, the image distance is always equal to the object distance, and light rays only appear to meet behind the mirror. 1
Reason (R): In a plane mirror, the image distance is always equal to the object distance, and light rays only appear to meet behind the mirror. 1
Q37. Assertion (A): Two resistors connected in parallel have a combined resistance less than the smallest individual resistance.
Reason (R): In a parallel combination, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances. 1
Reason (R): In a parallel combination, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q38 to Q41
Q38. State the two laws of reflection of light. 2
Q39. Why does the sky appear blue during the day? 2
— OR —
An object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror. Where will the image be formed? State the nature of the image. 2
Q40. Three resistors of 4 Ω, 6 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination. 2
Q41. What is the function of an electromagnet? Name one device (other than a motor or generator) in which an electromagnet is used. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q42
Q42. (a) With a labelled ray diagram, explain the formation of the image of an object placed between the focus and the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. (3)
(b) A convex lens of focal length 15 cm forms a real image twice the size of the object. Calculate the object and image distances. (2) 5
(b) A convex lens of focal length 15 cm forms a real image twice the size of the object. Calculate the object and image distances. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Derive the expression for the equivalent resistance of three resistors connected in series. (3)
(b) An electric bulb is rated 100 W, 220 V. Calculate the current drawn by the bulb and its resistance when operated at the rated voltage. (2)
(b) An electric bulb is rated 100 W, 220 V. Calculate the current drawn by the bulb and its resistance when operated at the rated voltage. (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q43
Q43. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is consumed or produced in a circuit, and is measured in watts (W). The energy consumed by an electrical appliance depends on its power rating and the duration for which it is used, and is commonly measured in a commercial unit called the kilowatt-hour (kWh), often referred to as a "unit" of electricity on domestic bills. Understanding the power ratings of appliances helps consumers estimate their electricity consumption and make informed choices to conserve energy and reduce their electricity bills.
43.1 Define the commercial unit of electrical energy. (1)
43.2 Write the formula relating electric power, potential difference and current. (1)
43.3 Calculate the energy consumed, in kWh, by a 1500 W heater used for 4 hours in a day. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Competency Analysis
1. Part-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
| Part | Section 1 (VSA + AR) | Section 2 (SA) | Section 3 (LA) | Section 4 (Case-based) | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A — Chemistry | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| B — Biology | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 2 × 5 = 10 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 30 |
| C — Physics | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| Total | 24 | 24 | 20 | 12 | 80 |
2. Unit-wise Weightage (as per given specification)
| Unit | Topic Focus | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Unit I — Chemical Substances | Chemical reactions/equations, acids/bases/salts, metals & non-metals, carbon compounds | 25 |
| Unit II — World of Living | Life processes, control & coordination, reproduction, heredity | 25 |
| Unit V — Natural Resources | Ecosystems, energy flow, waste management | 5 |
| Unit III — Natural Phenomena | Reflection/refraction, human eye and its defects | 12 |
| Unit IV — Effects of Current | Ohm's law, resistance, magnetic effects (excluding motor/generator/EMI) | 13 |
| Total | 80 |
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Approx. Marks | Approx. % |
|---|---|---|
| Knowledge & Understanding (state, define, list, describe, identify) | 40 | 50% |
| Application (calculate, illustrate, show, explain, distinguish) | 24 | 30% |
| Analyse, Evaluate & Create (interpret, analyse, compare, contrast, examine) | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Part A: Internal choice provided in Q12 (SA) and Q13 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
Part B: Internal choice provided in Q24 (SA), Q27 (LA) and Q28 (LA) — 3 of 7 non-VSA questions (~43%, within the "approximately one-third" range for the paper overall).
Part C: Internal choice provided in Q39 (SA) and Q42 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
5. Exclusions Confirmed
✔ No questions from Periodic Classification of Elements.
✔ No questions from Evolution (speciation, fossils) — only Heredity concepts included.
✔ No questions on Electric Motor, Electromagnetic Induction, or Electric Generator.
✔ No content drawn from "Do You Know" / informational boxes in NCERT textbooks.
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — CHEMISTRY
Q1. Combination reaction.
Q2. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O.
Q3. pH = 7.
Q4. Hydrogenation.
Q5. MnO₂ (manganese dioxide) is the oxidising agent.
Q6. Calcium oxide, CaO.
Q7. (A) Q8. (A)
Q9. 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂; a highly exothermic displacement (redox) reaction.
Q10. A reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen, releasing heat and light, is a combustion reaction; e.g., CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O + heat.
Q11. Rusting is a chemical change — a new substance (iron oxide) is formed, it is generally irreversible, and mass/composition changes; a physical change (e.g., melting) involves no new substance and is usually reversible. OR: Respiration releases energy (as heat) for cellular activities, so it is exothermic.
Q12. Four C–H covalent bonds shown around a central carbon atom sharing electron pairs; methane has only single covalent (sigma) bonds.
Q13. (a) Esters are sweet-smelling compounds formed from an acid and an alcohol; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH →(conc. H₂SO₄)→ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O. (b) Add sodium bicarbonate — ethanoic acid produces brisk effervescence (CO₂), ethanol does not. OR: Low reactivity metals (Au, Ag) found in free state; medium reactivity (Fe, Zn) extracted by reduction of oxides with carbon; high reactivity (Na, K) extracted by electrolytic reduction. Sodium is kept in kerosene as it reacts vigorously with oxygen/moisture in air.
Q14. (i) Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O. (ii) Rust is flaky and does not adhere to the surface, so it keeps exposing fresh iron to further corrosion, unlike aluminium oxide which forms a tight, protective layer. (iii) Galvanisation — coating iron with a thin layer of zinc, which is more reactive and corrodes preferentially, protecting the iron underneath.
PART B — BIOLOGY
Q15. Salivary amylase.
Q16. A stimulus is any change in the environment (internal or external) that evokes a response in an organism.
Q17. Stamen (male); pistil/carpel (female).
Q18. Such organisms are said to show both sexual and asexual reproduction (e.g., Hydra, some plants).
Q19. Tall (Tt, tall is dominant).
Q20. Renewable: solar/wind energy; Non-renewable: coal/petroleum (any correct example).
Q21. (A) Q22. (A)
Q23. Testosterone (male) — development of male secondary sexual characteristics; Oestrogen (female) — development of female secondary sexual characteristics and regulation of the menstrual cycle.
Q24. Binary fission: one parent divides into two roughly equal daughter cells (e.g., Amoeba); multiple fission: one parent divides into many daughter cells simultaneously (e.g., Plasmodium). OR: Genetic material transfer ensures that basic body design features are passed on, allowing the new generation to survive and enabling variations for adaptation over time.
Q25. Wave-like muscular contractions that push food along the alimentary canal; occurs throughout the canal, from the oesophagus to the intestines.
Q26. Contraceptive methods help control population growth and prevent sexually transmitted infections; examples — condoms, oral contraceptive pills (any two correct methods).
Q27. Nephron diagram showing Bowman's capsule, glomerulus, and the tubule; ADH increases water reabsorption in the tubules when the body needs to conserve water, producing more concentrated urine. OR: Double fertilisation involves fusion of one male gamete with the egg (forming the zygote) and another with the polar nuclei (forming the endosperm); after fertilisation, the ovary develops into a fruit and ovules into seeds.
Q28. FSH and LH regulate the maturation of the egg and release from the ovary, while oestrogen and progesterone regulate the thickening/shedding of the uterine lining; STDs — HIV/AIDS, gonorrhoea (any two); prevention — use of condoms. OR: Forebrain (thinking, voluntary actions), midbrain and hindbrain (medulla) diagram; medulla in the hindbrain controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing and blood pressure.
Q29. (i) Biodegradable waste is broken down by microorganisms; non-biodegradable waste is not broken down naturally and persists in the environment. (ii) Plastic. (iii) Segregation of waste at source, and recycling/composting of biodegradable waste.
PART C — PHYSICS
Q30. Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length (in metres); SI unit is the dioptre (D).
Q31. Convex mirror; it gives a wider field of view since it always forms a diminished, erect image of objects behind the vehicle.
Q32. The eyeball becomes too short, or the focal length of the eye lens becomes too long, causing the image of a nearby object to form behind the retina.
Q33. Ohm-metre (Ω·m).
Q34. I = V/R = 5/10 = 0.5 A.
Q35. Fleming's left-hand rule.
Q36. (A) Q37. (A)
Q38. (i) The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. (ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
Q39. Molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere scatter blue light (shorter wavelength) much more than red light, so the sky appears blue. OR: The image is formed at infinity; it is highly diminished and real (or considered formed at infinity, hence not well-defined in size).
Q40. 1/R = 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/12 = 6/12 = 1/2 ⟹ R = 2 Ω.
Q41. An electromagnet is a temporary magnet created using a current-carrying coil wound around a soft iron core; used in devices such as electric bells or electromagnetic cranes (used for lifting scrap iron).
Q42. (a) Image is real, inverted and magnified, formed beyond the centre of curvature. (b) Using magnification m = −2 (real image): v = −2u; using the lens formula 1/f = 1/v − 1/u with f = 15 cm, u = −22.5 cm, v = −45 cm. OR: Standard series-resistance derivation showing R = R₁+R₂+R₃; I = P/V = 100/220 ≈ 0.45 A, R = V²/P = 220²/100 = 484 Ω.
Q43. (i) The kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the commercial unit of electrical energy; 1 kWh = energy consumed at the rate of 1 kW for 1 hour = 3.6 × 10⁶ J. (ii) P = VI. (iii) Energy = 1.5 kW × 4 h = 6 kWh.
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