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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 5 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into three parts — Part A (Chemistry, 25 Marks), Part B (Biology, 30 Marks) and Part C (Physics, 25 Marks).
2. Each part is further divided into four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (including objective-type and Assertion–Reason questions), Section 2 — Short Answer, Section 3 — Long Answer, and Section 4 — Case/Source-based integrated question.
3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions across the paper. Attempt only one option where a choice is given.
4. Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
5. Write balanced chemical equations wherever applicable.
6. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
PART A — CHEMISTRY (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q8
Q1. Name the type of reaction in which a single reactant breaks down into two or more simpler products. 1
Q2. Write the chemical formula of bleaching powder. 1
Q3. What colour does red litmus turn when dipped in a basic solution? 1
Q4. Name the gas released when a metal reacts with a dilute acid. 1
Q5. Name the process used for the purification of impure metals using electricity. 1
Q6. Identify the type of reaction: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. 1
Q7. Assertion (A): When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it turns grey.
Reason (R): Silver chloride decomposes in sunlight to form silver metal and chlorine gas — a photochemical decomposition reaction. 1
Reason (R): Silver chloride decomposes in sunlight to form silver metal and chlorine gas — a photochemical decomposition reaction. 1
Q8. Assertion (A): A magnesium ribbon must be cleaned before burning it in air.
Reason (R): Magnesium reacts with the oxygen present in air to form a layer of magnesium oxide on its surface, which must be removed for it to burn properly. 1
Reason (R): Magnesium reacts with the oxygen present in air to form a layer of magnesium oxide on its surface, which must be removed for it to burn properly. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q9 to Q12
Q9. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between dilute sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide solution, and name the products formed. 2
Q10. What is the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid? Give one example of each. 2
Q11. Explain why it is necessary to balance a chemical equation. 2
— OR —
State any two harmful effects of using detergents (instead of soap) with respect to the environment. 2
Q12. Draw the structure of ethanol (C₂H₅OH), and identify the functional group present in it. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q13
Q13. (a) Write the chemical equation for the chlor-alkali process (electrolysis of brine), and name the products obtained apart from sodium hydroxide. (3)
(b) Write one use each of chlorine, hydrogen and sodium hydroxide obtained from this process. (2) 5
(b) Write one use each of chlorine, hydrogen and sodium hydroxide obtained from this process. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) What is meant by the "reactivity series" of metals? Metal A displaces Metal B from its salt solution, and Metal B displaces Metal C from its salt solution. Arrange A, B and C in decreasing order of reactivity, with reasoning. (3)
(b) Why does the surface of aluminium not corrode further after its initial reaction with air? (2)
(b) Why does the surface of aluminium not corrode further after its initial reaction with air? (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q14
Q14. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Carbon and its compounds are widely used as fuels because they release a large amount of energy on burning. However, incomplete combustion of carbon fuels (due to insufficient supply of oxygen) leads to the formation of carbon monoxide, a highly poisonous gas, along with unburnt carbon particles that appear as soot. Complete combustion, in contrast, produces carbon dioxide and water, releasing heat more efficiently. This is why adequate ventilation is important when burning fuels like LPG or wood indoors.
14.1 What harmful gas is produced during the incomplete combustion of a carbon fuel? (1)
14.2 Why is it dangerous to burn fuels like coal in a closed room? (1)
14.3 Write balanced chemical equations for the complete and incomplete combustion of methane (CH₄). (2)
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PART B — BIOLOGY (30 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q15 to Q22
Q15. Name the pigment responsible for photosynthesis in green plants. 1
Q16. Define the term "excretion". 1
Q17. Name the part of the human brain responsible for maintaining posture and balance of the body. 1
Q18. What is the term for the sac in which pollen grains are produced in a flower? 1
Q19. In humans, what is the probability of a child being a boy, based on the sex-determination mechanism? 1
Q20. Name one method used for the conservation of water. 1
Q21. Assertion (A): Bile juice does not contain any digestive enzyme, yet it plays an important role in digestion.
Reason (R): Bile emulsifies large fat globules into smaller ones, increasing the surface area for the action of lipase enzymes. 1
Reason (R): Bile emulsifies large fat globules into smaller ones, increasing the surface area for the action of lipase enzymes. 1
Q22. Assertion (A): A trait controlled by a dominant allele is always more common in a population than a trait controlled by a recessive allele.
Reason (R): The dominant allele always masks the effect of the recessive allele in a heterozygous individual. 1
Reason (R): The dominant allele always masks the effect of the recessive allele in a heterozygous individual. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q23 to Q26
Q23. What is the function of the alveoli in the human respiratory system? 2
Q24. Differentiate between "growth" and "development" in the context of an organism's life. 2
— OR —
State two functions of stomata in a plant. 2
Q25. Explain the process of pollination. Name two agents of pollination. 2
Q26. Why is a homozygous recessive individual used in a "test cross"? Explain briefly. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks each) — Q27 to Q28
Q27. (a) With a labelled diagram, describe the structure and function of the human heart. (3)
(b) What is meant by "blood pressure"? Name the instrument used to measure it. (2) 5
(b) What is meant by "blood pressure"? Name the instrument used to measure it. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the process of germination of a seed. (3)
(b) What conditions are necessary for seed germination? (2)
(b) What conditions are necessary for seed germination? (2)
Q28. (a) Explain the process of asexual reproduction by budding, with reference to Hydra. (3)
(b) What is "regeneration"? Give one example of an organism showing this ability. (2) 5
(b) What is "regeneration"? Give one example of an organism showing this ability. (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Describe the male reproductive system in humans, with the help of a labelled diagram. (3)
(b) State the function of the seminal vesicle and the prostate gland. (2)
(b) State the function of the seminal vesicle and the prostate gland. (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q29
Q29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
Freshwater, though essential for all life, constitutes only a small fraction of the total water available on Earth, most of which is locked in glaciers or is saline ocean water. Growing population, industrialisation and inefficient irrigation practices have placed increasing pressure on freshwater resources, leading to water scarcity in many regions. Rainwater harvesting, a traditional practice being revived in many parts of India, involves collecting and storing rainwater for later use, and also helps recharge groundwater levels, making it an important strategy for sustainable water management.
29.1 Why is freshwater considered a scarce resource, despite water covering most of the Earth's surface? (1)
29.2 Name one factor, mentioned in the passage, that is increasing pressure on freshwater resources. (1)
29.3 What is "rainwater harvesting", and how does it help address water scarcity? (2)
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PART C — PHYSICS (25 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q30 to Q37
Q30. Define "magnification" produced by a spherical mirror. 1
Q31. State the type of image formed by a plane mirror. 1
Q32. Name the defect of vision in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly. 1
Q33. Write the formula relating resistance, resistivity, length and area of cross-section of a conductor. 1
Q34. Calculate the potential difference required to pass a current of 2 A through a resistor of 5 Ω. 1
Q35. Name the phenomenon by which a compass needle placed near a bar magnet aligns itself along a particular direction. 1
Q36. Assertion (A): A bulb glows more brightly when connected in a circuit with lower resistance for the same source voltage.
Reason (R): For a given voltage, current is inversely proportional to resistance according to Ohm's law, so lower resistance means higher current and more power dissipated. 1
Reason (R): For a given voltage, current is inversely proportional to resistance according to Ohm's law, so lower resistance means higher current and more power dissipated. 1
Q37. Assertion (A): A convex mirror always forms a diminished image, irrespective of the position of the object.
Reason (R): The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual and located between the pole and the focus. 1
Reason (R): The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual and located between the pole and the focus. 1
Section 2 — Short Answer (2 Marks each) — Q38 to Q41
Q38. State the mirror formula, and define the terms used in it. 2
Q39. Two thin lenses of power +3.5 D and −2.5 D are placed in contact. Calculate the power and focal length of the combination. 2
Q40. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω draws a current of 5 A. Calculate its power rating. 2
Q41. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet, indicating the direction of the field. 2
Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q42
Q42. (a) With a labelled ray diagram, show the formation of an image when an object is placed between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror. State the nature of the image formed. (3)
(b) At what distance should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm to obtain a real image three times the size of the object? (2) 5
(b) At what distance should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm to obtain a real image three times the size of the object? (2) 5
— OR —
(a) Draw a circuit diagram showing how three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω should be connected so that the total resistance of the combination is 4 Ω. (3)
(b) State two factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. (2)
(b) State two factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. (2)
Section 4 — Case-based Question (4 Marks) — Q43
Q43. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.4
When current flows through a circular loop of wire, a magnetic field is produced, with field lines forming concentric circles near the wire and becoming nearly straight and parallel near the centre of the loop. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop becomes stronger as the number of turns of wire in the loop increases. This effect — the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying circular coil — forms the basis for several devices requiring a concentrated and adjustable magnetic field.
43.1 What shape do the magnetic field lines take near the centre of a current-carrying circular loop? (1)
43.2 How does increasing the number of turns in the coil affect the magnetic field at its centre? (1)
43.3 A circular coil carries a current I, producing a magnetic field B at its centre. If the current is doubled and the number of turns is also doubled, how will the magnetic field at the centre be affected? Explain your reasoning. (2)
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Competency Analysis
1. Part-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
| Part | Section 1 (VSA + AR) | Section 2 (SA) | Section 3 (LA) | Section 4 (Case-based) | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A — Chemistry | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| B — Biology | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 2 × 5 = 10 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 30 |
| C — Physics | 8 × 1 = 8 | 4 × 2 = 8 | 1 × 5 = 5 | 1 × 4 = 4 | 25 |
| Total | 24 | 24 | 20 | 12 | 80 |
2. Unit-wise Weightage (as per given specification)
| Unit | Topic Focus | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Unit I — Chemical Substances | Chemical reactions/equations, acids/bases/salts, metals & non-metals, carbon compounds | 25 |
| Unit II — World of Living | Life processes, control & coordination, reproduction, heredity | 25 |
| Unit V — Natural Resources | Ecosystems, energy flow, waste management | 5 |
| Unit III — Natural Phenomena | Reflection/refraction, human eye and its defects | 12 |
| Unit IV — Effects of Current | Ohm's law, resistance, magnetic effects (excluding motor/generator/EMI) | 13 |
| Total | 80 |
3. Competency-Level Distribution
| Competency Level | Approx. Marks | Approx. % |
|---|---|---|
| Knowledge & Understanding (state, define, list, describe, identify) | 40 | 50% |
| Application (calculate, illustrate, show, explain, distinguish) | 24 | 30% |
| Analyse, Evaluate & Create (interpret, analyse, compare, contrast, examine) | 16 | 20% |
| Total | 80 | 100% |
4. Internal Choice Summary
Part A: Internal choice provided in Q12 (SA) and Q13 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
Part B: Internal choice provided in Q24 (SA), Q27 (LA) and Q28 (LA) — 3 of 7 non-VSA questions (~43%, within the "approximately one-third" range for the paper overall).
Part C: Internal choice provided in Q39 (SA) and Q42 (LA) — 2 of 6 non-VSA questions (~33%).
5. Exclusions Confirmed
✔ No questions from Periodic Classification of Elements.
✔ No questions from Evolution (speciation, fossils) — only Heredity concepts included.
✔ No questions on Electric Motor, Electromagnetic Induction, or Electric Generator.
✔ No content drawn from "Do You Know" / informational boxes in NCERT textbooks.
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme (Key Points)
PART A — CHEMISTRY
Q1. Decomposition reaction.
Q2. CaOCl₂.
Q3. Blue.
Q4. Hydrogen gas.
Q5. Electrolytic refining.
Q6. Decomposition (thermal decomposition) reaction.
Q7. (A) Q8. (A)
Q9. 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O; products are sodium sulphate and water.
Q10. A strong acid ionises almost completely in water (e.g., HCl); a weak acid ionises only partially (e.g., CH₃COOH — acetic acid).
Q11. Balancing ensures the equation follows the law of conservation of mass — the number of atoms of each element must be equal on both sides. OR: Detergents are often non-biodegradable and can cause water pollution/foaming in rivers, harming aquatic life.
Q12. Structure: CH₃–CH₂–OH; the functional group is the hydroxyl group (–OH), making it an alcohol.
Q13. (a) 2NaCl + 2H₂O →(electrolysis)→ 2NaOH + Cl₂ + H₂; products besides NaOH are chlorine gas and hydrogen gas. (b) Chlorine — water treatment/PVC manufacture; Hydrogen — fuel/margarine manufacture; NaOH — soap manufacture. OR: Reactivity series ranks metals by decreasing reactivity; since A displaces B and B displaces C, order is A > B > C. Aluminium forms a thin, tightly adhering oxide layer that protects the metal beneath from further reaction.
Q14. (i) Carbon monoxide (CO). (ii) CO is poisonous and can accumulate in a closed room, leading to CO poisoning due to lack of ventilation. (iii) Complete: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O; Incomplete: 2CH₄ + 3O₂ → 2CO + 4H₂O (or with soot: CH₄ + O₂ → C + 2H₂O).
PART B — BIOLOGY
Q15. Chlorophyll.
Q16. The biological process of removal of metabolic waste products from the body is called excretion.
Q17. Cerebellum.
Q18. Anther.
Q19. 50% (1:1 ratio, since sex is determined by whether the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome).
Q20. Rainwater harvesting (or drip irrigation — any correct method).
Q21. (A)
Q22. (D) — Assertion is false (population frequency of a trait depends on allele frequency in the gene pool, not merely dominance); Reason is true.
Q23. Alveoli provide a large surface area richly supplied with blood vessels for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood.
Q24. Growth refers to an increase in the size/mass of an organism; development refers to the process of maturation, including differentiation of cells and acquiring of new functions/abilities. OR: Stomata allow gas exchange (CO₂ in, O₂ out) and regulate transpiration (water loss) in plants.
Q25. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower; agents — wind and insects (e.g., bees).
Q26. A homozygous recessive individual shows only the recessive phenotype, so any dominant allele contributed by the unknown parent will be revealed in the offspring's phenotype, helping determine whether the unknown parent is homozygous or heterozygous dominant.
Q27. Four-chambered heart diagram with atria, ventricles, valves; blood pressure is the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels, measured using a sphygmomanometer. OR: Germination involves the seed absorbing water, the embryo growing and the radicle/plumule emerging; requires water, oxygen and a suitable temperature.
Q28. In budding, a small outgrowth (bud) develops on the parent Hydra, eventually detaching to form a new individual. Regeneration is the ability to regrow lost body parts; e.g., Planaria. OR: Diagram showing testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, prostate gland, urethra, penis; seminal vesicle and prostate gland secrete fluids that nourish and help transport sperm.
Q29. (i) Most of Earth's water is either saline (oceans) or locked in glaciers, leaving only a small fraction as usable freshwater. (ii) Growing population / industrialisation / inefficient irrigation (any one). (iii) Rainwater harvesting is the collection and storage of rainwater for later use; it recharges groundwater and reduces dependence on other freshwater sources, helping address scarcity.
PART C — PHYSICS
Q30. Magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, formed by a spherical mirror.
Q31. Virtual, erect, and of the same size as the object.
Q32. Hypermetropia.
Q33. R = ρL/A.
Q34. V = IR = 2 × 5 = 10 V.
Q35. This shows that a bar magnet has its own magnetic field, which exerts a force on the compass needle, aligning it along the field direction.
Q36. (A) Q37. (A)
Q38. 1/v + 1/u = 1/f, where u = object distance, v = image distance, f = focal length (all measured from the pole, with sign convention).
Q39. P = 3.5 + (−2.5) = 1 D; f = 1/P = 1 m = 100 cm.
Q40. P = I²R = 5² × 20 = 500 W.
Q41. Field lines emerge from the north pole, curve around, and enter the south pole; closer lines near the poles indicate a stronger field.
Q42. (a) Image is virtual, erect and magnified, formed behind the mirror. (b) Using m = −v/u = −3 (real image) and mirror formula 1/f=1/v+1/u with f=−15 cm: u = −20 cm (object placed 20 cm in front of the mirror). OR: Circuit: (3Ω ∥ 6Ω) = 2Ω, in series with 2Ω gives 4Ω total. Resistance depends on length and area of cross-section of the conductor (and material/temperature).
Q43. (i) Nearly straight and parallel lines. (ii) The magnetic field at the centre increases proportionally with the number of turns. (iii) B is proportional to (number of turns × current); doubling both makes the new field 2×2 = 4 times the original value of B.
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