Class 10 Social Science – Geography

Chapter 2: Forest and Wildlife Resources

500 Important Questions with Answers

---

A. Introduction and Basic Concepts — Questions 1–50

1. What is biodiversity?

Answer: Biodiversity refers to the variety of flora and fauna living in a particular region or on the Earth.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 - 2026-27

www.careerinformationportal.in

APNA CAREER PORTAL

www.careerinformationportal.in

CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. A student argues that the Treaty of Vienna attempted to restore the old conservative order in Europe. Which evidence best supports the argument? 1

(A) It promoted universal adult franchise.(B) It restored monarchies and attempted to reverse many changes associated with Napoleonic rule.(C) It created a united democratic Germany.(D) It abolished all aristocratic privileges.

Q2. Which development most directly transformed the Salt March from a symbolic act into a mass political challenge? 1

(A) It challenged a tax affecting an essential commodity and encouraged wider participation.(B) It was restricted only to industrialists.(C) It supported the colonial salt monopoly.(D) It demanded the expansion of British trade.

Q3. Which statement best explains why the Great Depression affected colonial India differently from industrial countries? 1

(A) India was closely integrated into global agricultural markets and depended heavily on commodity exports.(B) India had no agricultural production.(C) India was completely isolated from world markets.(D) Indian peasants received guaranteed prices from the colonial government.

Q4. A colonial government attempts to restrict a newspaper because it criticises its policies. What does this reveal about the political significance of print culture? 1

(A) Print had no role in political debate.(B) Print could influence public opinion and therefore became a subject of political control.(C) Newspapers were read only by government officials.(D) Print eliminated political disagreement.

Q5. Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
Reason (R): Gandhiji believed that the movement was becoming violent and that the principles of non-violence had to be preserved.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8

Q6. Explain how liberalism, conservatism and nationalism came into conflict during the political transformations of nineteenth-century Europe.3

Q7. Analyse why the participation of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement was important, yet their political roles remained limited in many formal decision-making spaces.3

Q8. Explain three ways in which industrialisation changed the lives and working conditions of workers in nineteenth-century Europe.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9

Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through a process of collective mobilisation, but different groups attached different meanings to freedom.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6

— OR —

Analyse the impact of print culture on the growth of public opinion and social reform in India.

--- Continued on next page ---

Page 1 of 6 | www.careerinformationportal.in

www.careerinformationportal.in

PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. A region has abundant groundwater but faces falling water tables because extraction exceeds natural recharge. Which concept is most directly relevant? 1

(A) Sustainable use of resources(B) Mineral processing(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Industrial diversification

Q11. Which change would most likely make Indian agriculture more sustainable in a water-stressed region? 1

(A) Greater dependence on water-intensive crops(B) Efficient irrigation, crop diversification and water conservation(C) Continuous groundwater extraction(D) Removal of all traditional water systems

Q12. Why is bauxite an important mineral for modern industry? 1

(A) It is the principal ore of aluminium.(B) It is the principal ore of iron.(C) It is a fossil fuel.(D) It is a source of petroleum.

Q13. Which location factor becomes especially important for industries producing perishable goods? 1

(A) Proximity to raw materials and markets with efficient transport(B) Complete isolation from markets(C) Distance from all transport networks(D) Absence of communication facilities

Q14. Assertion (A): Road transport is especially useful for short-distance movement of goods and passengers.
Reason (R): Roads provide door-to-door connectivity and can link production centres with railways, ports and markets.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17

Q15. “Land degradation is both an environmental and an economic problem.” Explain the statement with three causes and their consequences.3

Q16. Analyse why the location of manufacturing industries depends on a combination of raw materials, labour, power, capital, transport and markets rather than on one factor alone.3

Q17. On the political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron and steel centre in Jharkhand, (b) a major software technology centre in Telangana, (c) a major multipurpose project on the Mahanadi, (d) a major seaport on the western coast.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18

Q18. “Energy resources determine both economic growth and environmental sustainability.” Analyse India's dependence on conventional sources and explain why renewable energy is increasingly important.6

— OR —

Analyse the importance of water conservation and rainwater harvesting for sustainable development in India.

--- Continued on next page ---

Page 2 of 6 | www.careerinformationportal.in

www.careerinformationportal.in

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. In a democracy, why is sharing power among different organs of government considered desirable? 1

(A) It prevents any one organ from exercising unlimited power.(B) It removes the need for laws.(C) It makes elections unnecessary.(D) It gives all powers to the executive.

Q20. Which situation best illustrates vertical power sharing? 1

(A) Power shared among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(B) Power shared among Union, State and local governments(C) Power shared among political parties only(D) Power shared among pressure groups only

Q21. Which factor most strengthened the role of regional parties in Indian politics? 1

(A) Recognition of regional interests and the growth of coalition politics(B) Abolition of state governments(C) Complete disappearance of local issues(D) End of electoral competition

Q22. Which measure would most directly reduce the problem of money power in elections? 1

(A) Greater transparency in political funding and stricter enforcement of election rules(B) Removing election expenditure rules(C) Restricting voting rights(D) Allowing anonymous unlimited funding

Q23. Assertion (A): Belgium adopted accommodation to manage tensions among linguistic communities.
Reason (R): Power sharing can reduce the possibility that a majority community will permanently dominate minorities.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26

Q24. Explain why majoritarianism can create instability in a democracy. Use the Belgian and Sri Lankan experiences to support your answer.3

Q25. Explain three ways in which decentralisation can make democracy more responsive and accountable.3

Q26. Why do citizens need political parties even when parties themselves face criticism? Explain three essential functions.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27

Q27. Analyse how power sharing and federalism together help accommodate social and regional diversity in a democracy.6

— OR —

“Political parties are both a necessary condition for democracy and a source of democratic challenges.” Examine the statement and suggest reforms.

--- Continued on next page ---

Page 3 of 6 | www.careerinformationportal.in

www.careerinformationportal.in

PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. A country records high average income but poor public healthcare and sanitation. Which conclusion is most appropriate? 1

(A) Income is the only measure of development.(B) Development must include public facilities and quality-of-life indicators.(C) Public facilities do not affect human well-being.(D) Average income automatically guarantees equal development.

Q29. A farmer hires a tractor service and pays a transport company to carry produce to market. Which sectors are represented by these services? 1

(A) Only primary sector(B) Tertiary sector(C) Only secondary sector(D) Only manufacturing sector

Q30. Why is formal credit important for economic development? 1

(A) It is generally regulated and can provide credit at relatively reasonable terms.(B) It always requires no repayment.(C) It eliminates all economic risk.(D) It is available only to large corporations.

Q31. An MNC shifts part of its production to India because of skilled labour, lower costs and access to markets. What does this illustrate? 1

(A) Globalisation of production(B) Complete economic isolation(C) Barter system(D) Decline of international investment

Q32. Assertion (A): Globalisation has increased competition among producers in India.
Reason (R): Liberalisation has enabled greater interaction with international markets and foreign producers.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35

Q33. Explain why sustainability should be considered while comparing development options for different countries and communities.3

Q34. Analyse how the terms of credit can influence whether borrowing improves or worsens the economic condition of a borrower.3

Q35. Explain three ways in which globalisation has affected Indian consumers and one major challenge it creates for small producers.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36

Q36. Analyse the relationship among employment, productivity and the three sectors of the Indian economy. Explain why creating productive employment is more important than merely increasing the number of jobs.6

— OR —

Critically examine the role of MNCs in globalisation. Discuss both the opportunities they create and the risks they may pose for local producers.

--- End of Question Paper --- All the Best! ---

Page 4 of 6 | www.careerinformationportal.in

www.careerinformationportal.in

APNA CAREER PORTAL

www.careerinformationportal.in

Design of Question Paper — Blueprint

1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint

Part	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3	Total
A — History	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
B — Geography	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
C — Political Science	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
D — Economics	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
Total	20	36	24	80

2. Chapter Coverage

Subject	Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
History	The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography	Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political Science	Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
Economics	Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy

3. Question Typology & Competency Focus

Question Type	Total Questions	Total Marks	Primary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason	20	20	Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer	12	36	Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer	4	24	Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total	36	80	Mixed competency-based assessment

4. Difficulty & Competency Design

Level	Indicative Weightage	Focus
Basic	Approx. 30%	Definitions, identification, core facts
Moderate	Approx. 45%	Application, explanation, comparison
Advanced	Approx. 25%	Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning

Page 5 of 6 (Blueprint) | www.careerinformationportal.in

www.careerinformationportal.in

Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 10

PART A — HISTORY

Q1. (B)

Q2. (A)

Q3. (A)

Q4. (B)

Q5. (A)

Q6. Liberalism supported constitutional government and individual rights; conservatism defended traditional monarchical authority; nationalism challenged dynastic rule by seeking nation-based political unity. Their competing objectives shaped nineteenth-century Europe.

Q7. Women organised demonstrations, boycotted foreign cloth and liquor shops and participated in political mobilisation. However, social norms and gender expectations limited their access to leadership and formal political decision-making.

Q8. Industrialisation created factory employment but often involved long working hours, low wages, unsafe conditions, child labour and overcrowded urban settlements. Workers gradually developed associations and demands for reforms.

Q9. Different groups joined the national movement with distinct objectives: peasants sought revenue relief, business groups wanted favourable economic policies, workers and women participated in mobilisation, while some groups had local grievances. Nationalism created a common political platform without eliminating social differences. OR: Print expanded public debate, spread reformist ideas, connected readers and enabled criticism of social and political authority.

PART B — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. (A)

Q11. (B)

Q12. (A)

Q13. (A)

Q14. (A)

Q15. Causes include deforestation, overgrazing, mining, over-irrigation and industrial waste. Consequences include soil erosion, declining fertility, reduced agricultural productivity and ecological imbalance.

Q16. Industries choose locations by balancing several factors. Raw materials and power affect costs, labour provides skills, capital enables investment, transport connects inputs and markets, and markets determine demand. Modern industries often optimise several factors simultaneously.

Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples: an appropriate Jharkhand iron and steel centre, Hyderabad (Telangana), Hirakud (Odisha), and an appropriate western-coast seaport.

Q18. Conventional energy sources support industry and transport but are exhaustible and can cause pollution. Renewable sources such as solar, wind and biomass diversify the energy mix, reduce environmental pressure and strengthen long-term energy security. OR: Water conservation and rainwater harvesting recharge groundwater, reduce dependence on over-extraction, support irrigation and urban supply, and improve resilience to variable rainfall.

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. (A)

Q20. (B)

Q21. (A)

Q22. (A)

Q23. (A)

Q24. Majoritarianism can marginalise minorities and create distrust and conflict. Belgium reduced tensions through accommodation and power sharing, while Sri Lanka's majoritarian policies generated alienation and prolonged conflict.

Q25. Local governments identify local needs, encourage direct participation and improve accountability. They also enable decisions to reflect local knowledge and can bring governance closer to citizens.

Q26. Parties contest elections, aggregate interests, form governments, shape public policy and provide political choices to citizens. These functions make representative democracy workable.

Q27. Power sharing protects minority interests and prevents concentration of authority; federalism distributes powers territorially and accommodates regional diversity. Together, they create institutional mechanisms for participation, negotiation and peaceful conflict management. OR: Parties are essential for elections and representation but face internal democracy, dynastic succession, money power and transparency challenges. Reforms should strengthen internal elections, financial disclosure, participation and accountability.

PART D — ECONOMICS

Q28. (B)

Q29. (B)

Q30. (A)

Q31. (A)

Q32. (A)

Q33. Development choices affect future generations and the environment. Sustainable options conserve resources, reduce pollution and ensure that present improvements do not undermine future well-being.

Q34. Interest rates, collateral, repayment period and other conditions determine the burden of a loan. Reasonable terms can support productive investment, while high interest and harsh conditions can lead to debt traps.

Q35. Consumers have greater variety, improved quality, competitive prices and access to new products. Small producers may face stronger competition from MNCs and imports, requiring technology, skills and market support.

Q36. The primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are interdependent. Productivity growth and structural change can shift employment toward higher-value activities. Productive employment matters because jobs should generate adequate income, output and sustainable livelihoods rather than merely increase the number of workers employed. OR: MNCs bring investment, technology, employment and market links, but can intensify competition and pressure small producers. The impact depends on policy, skills, infrastructure and support for domestic enterprises.

Sample Paper 10 — High-Level / HOTS / Competency-Based | CBSE Class X Social Science | Session 2026–27

Answer Key | Sample Paper 10 | www.careerinformationportal.in