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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7 (Session 2026–27)
| Student Name: ______________________ | Roll No.: __________ | Section: __________ |
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.
2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.
3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.
4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.
5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.
PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. A historian argues that the Zollverein helped create a sense of economic unity before political unification in Germany. Which evidence best supports this argument? 1
Q2. Why did Gandhiji choose salt as a symbol during the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1
Q3. Which situation most clearly demonstrates the connection between industrialisation and global trade in the nineteenth century? 1
Q4. A reformer uses newspapers and pamphlets to challenge an established social practice. What feature of print culture does this example illustrate? 1
Q5. Assertion (A): The Simon Commission faced protests in India.
Reason (R): It did not include any Indian member despite being appointed to examine constitutional reforms in India.1
Reason (R): It did not include any Indian member despite being appointed to examine constitutional reforms in India.1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. “Nationalism did not emerge only through political events; culture also played a decisive role.” Analyse the statement with three examples from Europe.3
Q7. Examine three reasons why the participation of different social groups in the Non-Cooperation Movement was not identical.3
Q8. Explain how the First World War transformed the economic and social conditions in India and contributed to the growth of anti-colonial sentiment.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “The making of a global world involved both opportunities and inequalities.” Analyse this statement with reference to trade, migration, technology and colonialism.6
— OR —
Analyse the role of print culture in shaping religious debates, social reform and political consciousness in India.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. A district has fertile land but suffers from severe soil erosion because vegetation has been removed from slopes. Which approach is most appropriate? 1
Q11. Which farming system is most likely where farmers combine crop cultivation with animal rearing to reduce dependence on a single activity? 1
Q12. Why are many mineral-based industries located close to mineral-producing areas? 1
Q13. Which transport system is most suitable for carrying large quantities of bulky goods over long distances at relatively low cost? 1
Q14. Assertion (A): Renewable energy sources are increasingly important for India's energy security.
Reason (R): They can reduce dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels and help diversify the energy mix.1
Reason (R): They can reduce dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels and help diversify the energy mix.1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Explain why resource availability alone does not guarantee development. Discuss three conditions required for effective resource planning.3
Q16. Analyse three environmental problems caused by intensive modern agriculture and suggest one suitable corrective measure for each.3
Q17. On the political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron and steel plant in Odisha, (b) a major cotton textile centre in Gujarat, (c) a multipurpose river valley project in the north, (d) an international airport in southern India.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Manufacturing industries are essential for economic development, but industrialisation must be environmentally responsible.” Analyse the economic importance of manufacturing and explain measures to reduce industrial pollution.6
— OR —
Analyse the importance of transport and communication networks in integrating different regions of India and promoting international trade.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. A government creates institutions in which different communities receive representation and participate in decision-making. Which democratic principle is illustrated? 1
Q20. Which feature most clearly distinguishes a federal system from a unitary system? 1
Q21. If no single party obtains a majority and several parties agree to govern together, which development is most likely? 1
Q22. Which reform would most directly strengthen internal democracy in a political party? 1
Q23. Assertion (A): Decentralisation can improve the quality of democratic participation.
Reason (R): Local institutions can address community-level problems with greater knowledge of local conditions.1
Reason (R): Local institutions can address community-level problems with greater knowledge of local conditions.1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Compare the prudential and moral reasons for power sharing. Why should a democracy consider both?3
Q25. Explain how the linguistic reorganisation of states and the rise of regional parties contributed to the strengthening of Indian federalism.3
Q26. “Political parties are necessary for democracy, but their functioning can weaken democratic quality.” Explain with three arguments.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. Analyse the factors that have made federalism successful in India. In your answer, distinguish between constitutional design and political practice.6
— OR —
Analyse the major challenges faced by political parties in India and evaluate measures that can improve their functioning.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Two states have similar per capita incomes, but one has much better literacy and health outcomes. What does this comparison suggest? 1
Q29. A farmer sells wheat to a flour mill, which converts it into flour. Which sector is represented by the flour mill? 1
Q30. Why do banks generally require collateral from borrowers for certain loans? 1
Q31. An Indian company outsources a part of its production to a firm abroad to reduce costs and access specialised skills. Which process does this illustrate? 1
Q32. Assertion (A): Formal credit is generally considered safer than informal credit.
Reason (R): Formal lenders are supervised by institutions and operate under established rules and regulations.1
Reason (R): Formal lenders are supervised by institutions and operate under established rules and regulations.1
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Why can a rise in average income fail to improve the quality of life for all sections of society? Explain with three points.3
Q34. Analyse the importance of affordable formal credit for small farmers and small producers. Explain three benefits.3
Q35. Explain three ways in which globalisation has changed the choices available to consumers in India, while also identifying one possible disadvantage.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. “The organised and unorganised sectors contribute differently to employment and worker protection.” Compare them on the basis of working conditions, job security, benefits and regulation. Suggest measures for improving the condition of unorganised workers.6
— OR —
“Globalisation creates both opportunities and challenges for Indian producers.” Critically evaluate this statement with reference to MNCs, investment, technology, competition and small producers.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
| Part | Section 1 | Section 2 | Section 3 | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A — History | 5 × 1 = 5 | 3 × 3 = 9 | 1 × 6 = 6 | 20 |
| B — Geography | 5 × 1 = 5 | 3 × 3 = 9 | 1 × 6 = 6 | 20 |
| C — Political Science | 5 × 1 = 5 | 3 × 3 = 9 | 1 × 6 = 6 | 20 |
| D — Economics | 5 × 1 = 5 | 3 × 3 = 9 | 1 × 6 = 6 | 20 |
| Total | 20 | 36 | 24 | 80 |
2. Chapter Coverage
| Subject | Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered |
|---|---|
| History | The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World |
| Geography | Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries |
| Political Science | Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability |
| Economics | Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy |
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
| Question Type | Total Questions | Total Marks | Primary Skill |
|---|---|---|---|
| Objective / Assertion–Reason | 20 | 20 | Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity |
| Short Answer | 12 | 36 | Explanation, comparison, analysis |
| Long Answer | 4 | 24 | Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis |
| Total | 36 | 80 | Mixed competency-based assessment |
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
| Level | Indicative Weightage | Focus |
|---|---|---|
| Basic | Approx. 30% | Definitions, identification, core facts |
| Moderate | Approx. 45% | Application, explanation, comparison |
| Advanced | Approx. 25% | Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning |
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 9
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (B)
Q3. (B)
Q4. (A)
Q5. (A)
Q6. Nationalism developed through language, folklore, music, poetry, symbols and allegories. Romantic artists and writers created shared cultural identities, while historical memories and vernacular traditions helped people imagine a common nation.
Q7. Different groups had different economic and political expectations: peasants wanted relief from revenue demands, business groups sought protection and favourable policies, and students, workers and women participated for broader anti-colonial objectives. Hence participation was broad but not uniform.
Q8. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; forced recruitment affected villages; food shortages and epidemics created hardship; and economic distress weakened faith in colonial rule.
Q9. Global integration expanded trade, migration and capital flows and was accelerated by railways, steamships and communication. However, colonialism produced unequal trade relations, exploitation and forced integration of economies. Thus globalisation created opportunities alongside major inequalities. OR: Print widened access to ideas, enabled religious and social debates, supported reform movements and helped create political consciousness.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (B)
Q11. (A)
Q12. (B)
Q13. (B)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Resource planning requires identification and inventory, appropriate technology/institutional arrangements, and matching resource development with national development objectives. Resources become useful only when knowledge, technology, investment and planning are available.
Q16. Intensive agriculture may cause groundwater depletion, soil degradation and chemical pollution. Measures include efficient irrigation, balanced fertiliser use, crop diversification, organic inputs and soil conservation.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples as asked, with appropriate map accuracy.
Q18. Manufacturing adds value, creates employment, reduces dependence on primary activities and supports trade. Pollution can be reduced through cleaner technologies, treatment of industrial effluents, recycling, energy efficiency, stricter monitoring and proper waste management. OR: Transport and communication connect production with markets, reduce regional isolation, support movement of people and goods, enable information flows and strengthen domestic and international trade.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (A)
Q22. (B)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Prudential reasons reduce conflict and instability; moral reasons recognise participation and equality as democratic values. A durable democracy requires both practical stability and democratic legitimacy.
Q25. Linguistic reorganisation accommodated regional identities within the Union. Regional parties brought state-level interests into national politics, while coalition politics encouraged consultation and negotiation between levels of government.
Q26. Parties are necessary to organise elections, form governments and represent interests, but lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money power and limited transparency can weaken democratic functioning.
Q27. Constitutional division of powers, independent institutions, linguistic accommodation, decentralisation, regional parties and coalition politics have all contributed to federal success. Constitutional design provides the framework, while political practice makes accommodation work. OR: Challenges include lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power and limited transparency. Reforms include organisational elections, greater disclosure, internal consultation and stronger enforcement of democratic norms.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (B)
Q30. (B)
Q31. (A)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Average income can hide inequality; some groups may lack healthcare, education or sanitation; and environmental quality and security may differ. Therefore development must be assessed through multiple indicators.
Q34. Affordable formal credit reduces dependence on moneylenders, supports investment in seeds, machinery or working capital, and can improve income-generating capacity. It also provides clearer terms and regulatory protection.
Q35. Consumers get greater variety, improved quality, competitive prices and access to new technologies. However, small local producers may face stronger competition and some jobs or traditional producers may be adversely affected.
Q36. Organised-sector workers generally receive greater job security, regulated working hours and social security benefits, while unorganised workers often face irregular employment, lower protection and limited benefits. Measures include enforcement of labour protections, social security coverage, skill development and easier access to formal employment and credit. OR: MNCs bring investment, technology and market access, but can intensify competition and pressure small producers. Outcomes depend on skills, infrastructure, policy support and the ability of domestic producers to adapt.
Answer Key | Sample Paper 9 | www.careerinformationportal.in
