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Sunday, August 16, 2026

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 8 - 2026-27

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 8 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________ Roll No.: __________ Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Which development best explains how nationalism became closely associated with liberalism in nineteenth-century Europe? 1
(A) Restoration of absolute monarchies(B) Demand for individual rights, constitutional government and equality before law(C) Expansion of feudal privileges(D) Suppression of representative institutions
Q2. Which event marked the formal declaration of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Indian National Congress? 1
(A) Lahore Congress Session, 1929(B) Nagpur Congress Session, 1920(C) Lucknow Congress Session, 1916(D) Calcutta Congress Session, 1906
Q3. Why did Indian merchants and industrialists support the Civil Disobedience Movement during its early phase? 1
(A) They wanted greater protection from colonial economic policies.(B) They wanted to abolish all Indian industries.(C) They opposed the expansion of Indian markets.(D) They supported unrestricted British imports.
Q4. Which factor most directly contributed to the rapid spread of print culture in nineteenth-century India? 1
(A) Decline of vernacular languages(B) Expansion of print technology and a growing reading public(C) Complete control of printing by village communities(D) Disappearance of religious publications
Q5. Assertion (A): The Rowlatt Act generated widespread opposition in India.
Reason (R): It empowered the colonial government to repress political activities and detain political prisoners without trial.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Analyse how the French Revolution contributed to the emergence of the idea of the nation-state in Europe. 3
Q7. Explain any three ways in which the Great Depression affected Indian peasants and agricultural production. 3
Q8. Why did industrialists in Britain increasingly use advertisements and attractive packaging during the expansion of consumer markets? Explain three reasons. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “The Civil Disobedience Movement was a broad-based movement, but its meaning varied for different social groups.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
Explain how the development of print culture changed the lives of women, workers and reformers in India. Use suitable examples.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which category of resources can be developed and used with available technology but has not yet been fully utilised? 1
(A) Developed resources(B) Stock(C) Potential resources(D) Reserves
Q11. Which cropping pattern is most closely associated with the intensive cultivation of land to meet food requirements in densely populated regions? 1
(A) Intensive subsistence farming(B) Plantation agriculture(C) Commercial grain farming(D) Nomadic herding
Q12. Which mineral is the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry? 1
(A) Manganese(B) Iron ore(C) Limestone(D) Mica
Q13. Which industry is often called a basic industry because its products are used as raw materials for many other industries? 1
(A) Textile industry(B) Iron and steel industry(C) Tourism industry(D) Electronics retail
Q14. Assertion (A): Multipurpose river valley projects are often called “temples of modern India”.
Reason (R): They can provide irrigation, electricity, flood control and water supply, though they may also create social and environmental costs.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Explain three major factors responsible for water scarcity in India, even in regions receiving substantial rainfall. 3
Q16. Distinguish between agro-based and mineral-based industries with suitable examples and explain why their location is influenced by raw materials. 3
Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) Bhilai iron and steel plant, (b) a major tea-producing state, (c) Tehri Dam, (d) Bengaluru software technology centre. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Resource planning is essential for sustainable development in India.” Explain the need for resource planning and discuss its major stages.6
— OR —
Analyse the role of transport and communication in the development of manufacturing industries and national markets in India.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Which form of power sharing involves the participation of different social groups in governance? 1
(A) Power sharing among organs of government(B) Power sharing among social groups(C) Power sharing among levels of government(D) Power sharing among political parties only
Q20. Which constitutional arrangement best demonstrates the federal principle in India? 1
(A) Division of powers between different levels of government(B) Complete concentration of powers in the Union(C) Absence of state governments(D) Rule by a single political party
Q21. Which of the following is a major function of political parties? 1
(A) Conducting judicial review(B) Contesting elections and forming governments(C) Preparing the national census only(D) Controlling the armed forces
Q22. Which challenge refers to the concentration of political leadership within family members? 1
(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Dynastic succession(C) Federalism(D) Coalition politics
Q23. Assertion (A): Decentralisation can deepen democracy at the grassroots level.
Reason (R): It allows local people to participate directly in decisions affecting their communities.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain how power sharing can be both prudential and moral in a democracy. 3
Q25. Explain any three ways in which linguistic accommodation strengthened Indian federalism. 3
Q26. Why is internal democracy within political parties important? Explain three consequences of its absence. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. “Federalism in India has evolved through both constitutional arrangements and political practice.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
“Political parties are indispensable to representative democracy, yet they face serious organisational and ethical challenges.” Discuss the statement critically.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Which combination best represents important non-income indicators of development? 1
(A) Health and education(B) Exports and imports only(C) Bank deposits only(D) Industrial output only
Q29. Which sector includes manufacturing and processing of raw materials into finished goods? 1
(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Informal sector only
Q30. Which institution is an important formal source of credit in India? 1
(A) Moneylender(B) Trader(C) Commercial bank(D) Relative
Q31. Which factor has significantly enabled the expansion of globalisation? 1
(A) Improved information and communication technology(B) Complete closure of markets(C) Decline of transport facilities(D) Elimination of international investment
Q32. Assertion (A): Banks play an important role in the economic development of a country.
Reason (R): Banks accept deposits and use a major portion of these deposits to provide loans for productive activities.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain why public facilities such as healthcare, sanitation and education are important for assessing development. 3
Q34. Analyse three reasons why poor borrowers may depend on informal sources of credit despite their disadvantages. 3
Q35. Explain how MNCs organise production globally and identify three ways in which local producers may be affected. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. “The tertiary sector has become increasingly important in the Indian economy.” Explain the reasons for its growth and discuss its role in employment and economic development.6
— OR —
Critically examine the impact of globalisation on consumers and small producers in India. Suggest measures that can make globalisation more inclusive.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
PartSection 1Section 2Section 3Total
A — History5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
B — Geography5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
C — Political Science5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
D — Economics5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
Total20362480
2. Chapter Coverage
SubjectMajor Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
HistoryThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
GeographyResources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political SciencePower Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
EconomicsDevelopment; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
Question TypeTotal QuestionsTotal MarksPrimary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason2020Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer1236Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer424Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total3680Mixed competency-based assessment
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
LevelIndicative WeightageFocus
BasicApprox. 30%Definitions, identification, core facts
ModerateApprox. 45%Application, explanation, comparison
AdvancedApprox. 25%Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 8
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (B)
Q3. (A)
Q4. (C)
Q5. (A)
Q6. National identity developed through common symbols, allegories, language, cultural traditions, folk practices and political movements demanding national unity and sovereignty.
Q7. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; demand for foodgrains and raw materials increased; forced recruitment and economic pressures affected rural society; exports and production patterns were altered.
Q8. Hand labour remained flexible; luxury and specialised goods required skilled workers; mechanisation was costly; seasonal demand and varying designs favoured hand production.
Q9. Participation included peasants, tribals, business groups, plantation workers and women, but their aspirations differed. Peasants sought relief from rents/revenue, business groups wanted protection and favourable economic conditions, tribals opposed forest restrictions, while women participated through marches and picketing. Gandhi's leadership provided a common national framework, though local objectives were not identical. OR: Print culture enabled wider circulation of ideas, encouraged debate, challenged authority, spread reformist and nationalist writings, and created new reading publics in Europe and India.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (C)
Q11. (B)
Q12. (C)
Q13. (C)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Deforestation — afforestation; overgrazing — controlled grazing; mining — reclamation/regulated mining; excessive irrigation — proper drainage and water management. Any three appropriate pairs.
Q16. Primitive subsistence farming is generally small-scale and focused on self-consumption with traditional tools; commercial farming is market-oriented, larger-scale and generally uses modern inputs, improved technology and greater capital.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples such as Bailadila/Noamundi, Mumbai/Ahmedabad, Bengaluru/Hyderabad, Bhakra-Nangal/Tehri.
Q18. Minerals provide raw material and energy inputs for industries, transport and construction, but deposits are unevenly distributed and extraction can cause land degradation, pollution and displacement. Sustainable use requires efficient extraction, recycling, improved technology, environmental safeguards and restoration of mined areas. OR: Manufacturing creates jobs, adds value to raw materials, supports trade, reduces dependence on primary activities and promotes regional development through industrial linkages.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (C)
Q22. (B)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Belgium accommodated linguistic diversity through equal representation, community government, regional governments and power-sharing arrangements in Brussels, reducing domination by one linguistic group.
Q25. Constitutional division of powers, multiple levels of government, independent jurisdiction in their areas, constitutional protection and decentralisation distinguish federal arrangements from a purely unitary system.
Q26. Lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power, limited meaningful choices and weak transparency can reduce accountability and public confidence.
Q27. Democracy requires elections as well as institutions that answer to citizens, respect rights, permit public debate and remain accountable. Transparency, opposition, media, judicial review and citizen participation strengthen responsiveness. OR: Power sharing reduces social conflict, accommodates diversity and prevents concentration of power. Belgium and India's federal arrangements demonstrate how inclusion can strengthen democratic stability.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (A)
Q30. (B)
Q31. (B)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Income does not reveal distribution; development also depends on health and education; public facilities and environmental quality affect well-being. Any three valid indicators/arguments.
Q34. Formal credit is regulated, generally has more transparent conditions and protects borrowers through institutional rules. Informal credit is often unregulated and may involve higher or arbitrary interest rates with weaker borrower protection.
Q35. MNCs bring investment, technology and production networks; they may create jobs and integrate local producers into global markets, but can also intensify competition and influence production decisions.
Q36. Globalisation can provide markets, technology, investment and employment, while also increasing competition and pressure on small producers and some workers. Its impact depends on access to technology, skills, infrastructure, fair policies and the ability of producers to compete. OR: Money provides a common medium of exchange, eliminating the double coincidence of wants. Banks accept deposits, keep savings secure, pay interest and use deposits to provide loans to borrowers, thereby facilitating economic activity.
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