CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 7 - 2026-27

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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. Why did the image of Bharat Mata become an important symbol during the growth of Indian nationalism? 1

(A) It represented India as a geographical map only.(B) It personified the nation and created a shared national identity.(C) It promoted British political institutions.(D) It represented industrial development in India.

Q2. Which treaty recognised the independence of Greece and marked an important development in nineteenth-century nationalism in Europe? 1

(A) Treaty of Vienna(B) Treaty of Constantinople(C) Treaty of Versailles(D) Treaty of Frankfurt

Q3. What was the principal purpose of the Spinning Jenny in the history of industrialisation? 1

(A) To increase yarn production(B) To transport coal(C) To print newspapers(D) To produce steam engines

Q4. Which technology dramatically accelerated the production and circulation of printed material? 1

(A) Telegraph(B) Steamship(C) Printing press(D) Spinning Jenny

Q5. Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
Reason (R): Mahatma Gandhi believed that a movement based on non-violence could not continue after the Chauri Chaura incident.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8

Q6. Explain how the idea of a nation was constructed in Europe through symbols, language, culture and political movements during the nineteenth century. 3

Q7. Analyse three ways in which the First World War transformed the Indian economy and affected different sections of Indian society. 3

Q8. Explain why hand production continued to remain important even after the expansion of factories in Britain. Give any three reasons. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9

Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through the participation of different social groups, but their understanding of freedom was not identical.” Examine the statement with suitable examples.6

— OR —

“Print culture transformed the world of ideas and created new forms of public debate.” Analyse the statement with reference to Europe and India.

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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. Which statement best explains sustainable development of resources? 1

(A) Maximum extraction of resources in the present(B) Use of resources without considering future needs(C) Meeting present needs without compromising future generations(D) Complete prohibition of resource use

Q11. Which soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation in India? 1

(A) Alluvial soil(B) Black soil(C) Laterite soil(D) Arid soil

Q12. Which type of farming is characterised by growing a single crop on a large estate with substantial capital and labour? 1

(A) Primitive subsistence farming(B) Intensive subsistence farming(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Nomadic herding

Q13. Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy? 1

(A) Coal(B) Petroleum(C) Solar energy(D) Lignite

Q14. Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is an important method of conserving water resources.
Reason (R): It helps recharge groundwater and reduces dependence on surface water sources.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17

Q15. Analyse any three causes of land degradation in India and suggest one appropriate conservation measure for each cause. 3

Q16. Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and commercial farming on the basis of purpose, scale and use of technology. 3

Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron-ore producing area, (b) a major cotton textile centre, (c) a major software technology centre, (d) a multipurpose river valley project. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18

Q18. “Minerals are indispensable for industrial development, yet their occurrence is unevenly distributed and their extraction creates environmental concerns.” Examine the statement and suggest measures for sustainable mineral use.6

— OR —

Explain the importance of manufacturing industries in the Indian economy. Discuss their contribution to employment, trade, value addition and balanced regional development.

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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. Which of the following is an example of horizontal power sharing? 1

(A) Power between Union and State governments(B) Power among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(C) Power between rural and urban local bodies(D) Power between political parties and pressure groups

Q20. What is the principal objective of decentralisation? 1

(A) To concentrate power at the national level(B) To transfer power closer to local people(C) To abolish local governments(D) To reduce citizen participation

Q21. Which institution registers political parties and allots election symbols in India? 1

(A) Parliament(B) Supreme Court(C) Election Commission of India(D) Finance Commission

Q22. What is a coalition government? 1

(A) Government formed by one party with complete majority(B) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(C) Government formed only by independent candidates(D) Government formed by the judiciary

Q23. Assertion (A): Federalism can strengthen national unity in a diverse country.
Reason (R): It allows regional and linguistic communities to participate in governance while retaining a common national framework.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26

Q24. Explain how the power-sharing arrangement in Belgium helped prevent conflict between linguistic communities. 3

Q25. Analyse any three features that make Indian federalism different from a purely unitary system. 3

Q26. Explain any three major challenges faced by political parties in a democratic system. Why can these challenges weaken public trust? 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27

Q27. “Democracy is not merely a system of elections; it is also a system of accountability and responsive governance.” Analyse the statement using suitable examples from democratic practice.6

— OR —

“Power sharing is desirable not only because it reduces the possibility of conflict, but also because it is the spirit of democracy.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments and examples.

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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. Why is average income used for comparing the development of countries? 1

(A) Countries have identical populations(B) It removes the effect of differences in population size(C) It measures only literacy(D) It measures environmental quality

Q29. Which sector is directly linked with the extraction and production of natural resources? 1

(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Service sector only

Q30. What is collateral in the context of formal credit? 1

(A) Interest paid on a loan(B) An asset pledged as security for a loan(C) A bank deposit(D) A government subsidy

Q31. What does globalisation of production refer to? 1

(A) Production restricted to one village(B) Production organised across different countries(C) Complete end of international trade(D) Production only by public-sector firms

Q32. Assertion (A): Formal sources of credit are generally safer for borrowers than informal sources.
Reason (R): Formal credit is regulated by institutions and generally operates under established rules and interest conditions.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35

Q33. Explain why income alone cannot provide a complete picture of human development. Use three non-income indicators to support your answer. 3

Q34. Compare formal and informal sources of credit on the basis of regulation, interest rates and borrower protection. 3

Q35. Explain three ways in which multinational corporations influence the production process in developing countries. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36

Q36. “Globalisation creates opportunities as well as challenges for producers and workers.” Critically examine the statement with reference to India, MNCs, technology, competition and employment.6

— OR —

Explain how money solves the problems of the barter system. Discuss the role of banks in accepting deposits, providing loans and connecting savers with borrowers.

--- End of Question Paper --- All the Best! ---

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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint

1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint

Part	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3	Total
A — History	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
B — Geography	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
C — Political Science	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
D — Economics	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
Total	20	36	24	80

2. Chapter Coverage

Subject	Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
History	The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography	Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political Science	Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
Economics	Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy

3. Question Typology & Competency Focus

Question Type	Total Questions	Total Marks	Primary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason	20	20	Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer	12	36	Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer	4	24	Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total	36	80	Mixed competency-based assessment

4. Difficulty & Competency Design

Level	Indicative Weightage	Focus
Basic	Approx. 30%	Definitions, identification, core facts
Moderate	Approx. 45%	Application, explanation, comparison
Advanced	Approx. 25%	Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning

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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 7

PART A — HISTORY

Q1. (B)

Q2. (B)

Q3. (A)

Q4. (C)

Q5. (A)

Q6. National identity developed through common symbols, allegories, language, cultural traditions, folk practices and political movements demanding national unity and sovereignty.

Q7. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; demand for foodgrains and raw materials increased; forced recruitment and economic pressures affected rural society; exports and production patterns were altered.

Q8. Hand labour remained flexible; luxury and specialised goods required skilled workers; mechanisation was costly; seasonal demand and varying designs favoured hand production.

Q9. Participation included peasants, tribals, business groups, plantation workers and women, but their aspirations differed. Peasants sought relief from rents/revenue, business groups wanted protection and favourable economic conditions, tribals opposed forest restrictions, while women participated through marches and picketing. Gandhi's leadership provided a common national framework, though local objectives were not identical. OR: Print culture enabled wider circulation of ideas, encouraged debate, challenged authority, spread reformist and nationalist writings, and created new reading publics in Europe and India.

PART B — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. (C)

Q11. (B)

Q12. (C)

Q13. (C)

Q14. (A)

Q15. Deforestation — afforestation; overgrazing — controlled grazing; mining — reclamation/regulated mining; excessive irrigation — proper drainage and water management. Any three appropriate pairs.

Q16. Primitive subsistence farming is generally small-scale and focused on self-consumption with traditional tools; commercial farming is market-oriented, larger-scale and generally uses modern inputs, improved technology and greater capital.

Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples such as Bailadila/Noamundi, Mumbai/Ahmedabad, Bengaluru/Hyderabad, Bhakra-Nangal/Tehri.

Q18. Minerals provide raw material and energy inputs for industries, transport and construction, but deposits are unevenly distributed and extraction can cause land degradation, pollution and displacement. Sustainable use requires efficient extraction, recycling, improved technology, environmental safeguards and restoration of mined areas. OR: Manufacturing creates jobs, adds value to raw materials, supports trade, reduces dependence on primary activities and promotes regional development through industrial linkages.

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. (B)

Q20. (B)

Q21. (C)

Q22. (B)

Q23. (A)

Q24. Belgium accommodated linguistic diversity through equal representation, community government, regional governments and power-sharing arrangements in Brussels, reducing domination by one linguistic group.

Q25. Constitutional division of powers, multiple levels of government, independent jurisdiction in their areas, constitutional protection and decentralisation distinguish federal arrangements from a purely unitary system.

Q26. Lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power, limited meaningful choices and weak transparency can reduce accountability and public confidence.

Q27. Democracy requires elections as well as institutions that answer to citizens, respect rights, permit public debate and remain accountable. Transparency, opposition, media, judicial review and citizen participation strengthen responsiveness. OR: Power sharing reduces social conflict, accommodates diversity and prevents concentration of power. Belgium and India's federal arrangements demonstrate how inclusion can strengthen democratic stability.

PART D — ECONOMICS

Q28. (B)

Q29. (A)

Q30. (B)

Q31. (B)

Q32. (A)

Q33. Income does not reveal distribution; development also depends on health and education; public facilities and environmental quality affect well-being. Any three valid indicators/arguments.

Q34. Formal credit is regulated, generally has more transparent conditions and protects borrowers through institutional rules. Informal credit is often unregulated and may involve higher or arbitrary interest rates with weaker borrower protection.

Q35. MNCs bring investment, technology and production networks; they may create jobs and integrate local producers into global markets, but can also intensify competition and influence production decisions.

Q36. Globalisation can provide markets, technology, investment and employment, while also increasing competition and pressure on small producers and some workers. Its impact depends on access to technology, skills, infrastructure, fair policies and the ability of producers to compete. OR: Money provides a common medium of exchange, eliminating the double coincidence of wants. Banks accept deposits, keep savings secure, pay interest and use deposits to provide loans to borrowers, thereby facilitating economic activity.

This sample paper and answer key are prepared for CBSE Class X Social Science practice, Session 2026–27.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science (087) Sample Paper 2 - 2026-27

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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 2  (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is organised subject-wise into four parts: Part I — History, Part II — Geography, Part III — Political Science, and Part IV — Economics, each carrying 20 marks.

2. Each part contains four sections: Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ, 1 mark each), Section 2 — Short Answer (3 marks each), Section 3 — Long Answer (5 marks), and Section 4 — Source/Case-Based Question (4 marks).

3. Internal choices have been provided in approximately one-third of the questions; attempt only one option wherever a choice is given.

4. All questions are compulsory unless an internal choice is indicated.

5. Marks for each question are indicated against it. Answer within the suggested word limit wherever applicable.

6. This is a practice paper prepared in line with the CBSE Class X Social Science (087) design for the 2026-27 session.

PART I — HISTORY   (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Gandhi in 1920, was closely linked with which other movement demanded by Indian Muslims? 1

(A) Swadeshi Movement(B) Khilafat Movement(C) Home Rule Movement(D) Quit India Movement

Q2. In which year was the Rowlatt Act passed by the British government? 1

(A) 1915(B) 1919(C) 1922(D) 1930

Q3. Name the journal/newspaper edited by Mahatma Gandhi that was widely used to spread nationalist ideas. 1

(A) Kesari(B) Young India(C) The Hindu(D) Amrita Bazar Patrika

Q4. Which social group was significantly affected by the fall in agricultural prices during the Great Depression, leading many of them to join the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1

(A) Industrialists(B) Peasants(C) Zamindars(D) Moneylenders

Q5. Which event, in March 1930, marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1

(A) The Dandi March(B) The Chauri Chaura incident(C) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre(D) The Lahore session of the Congress

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q7

Q6. Explain any three reasons why the Non-Cooperation Movement, though widespread in cities, began to slow down after 1922. 3

Q7. Describe the role played by women in the Civil Disobedience Movement. 3

— OR —

Explain how the image of "Bharat Mata" came to symbolise the idea of nationalism during the freedom struggle. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q8

Q8. Describe the effects of the First World War on Indian economy and society, and explain how these effects contributed to the rise of the Non-Cooperation Movement. 5

— OR —

Explain the significance of the Salt March and the Civil Disobedience Movement in the history of India's freedom struggle. 5

Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q9

Q9. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4

In February 1922, a large group of peasants participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with the police at Chauri Chaura, a small town in the United Provinces. The violence resulted in the deaths of several policemen when an angry crowd set fire to the police station. On learning of this incident, Mahatma Gandhi, deeply disturbed by the violence, decided to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement, believing that the movement was turning violent before people had been properly trained in the discipline of non-violence.

(i) Where did the Chauri Chaura incident take place? (1)

(ii) Why did Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement after this incident? (1)

(iii) What does this incident reveal about the challenges Gandhi faced in keeping a mass movement strictly non-violent? (2)

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PART II — GEOGRAPHY   (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. Which type of soil, found extensively on the Deccan Plateau, is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton? 1

(A) Alluvial soil(B) Black (regur) soil(C) Laterite soil(D) Desert soil

Q11. Which Indian state is the largest producer of jute? 1

(A) Assam(B) Bihar(C) West Bengal(D) Odisha

Q12. Forest and wildlife resources classified on the basis of ownership are divided into reserved/protected forests and: 1

(A) National parks only(B) Unclassed forests(C) Sanctuaries only(D) Biosphere reserves only

Q13. Which fibre crop is commonly referred to as the "golden fibre" of India? 1

(A) Cotton(B) Jute(C) Silk(D) Hemp

Q14. Name any one multi-purpose river valley project of India. 1

(A) Bhakra-Nangal(B) Konkan Railway(C) Golden Quadrilateral(D) Sardar Sarovar Statue

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q16

Q15. Explain any three factors that affect the distribution of natural vegetation in India. 3

Q16. Describe any three problems associated with land degradation faced by farmers in different parts of India. 3

— OR —

Explain any three measures of water conservation and management commonly adopted in India. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q17

Q17. Describe the distribution of iron ore in India and explain its importance to the Indian economy. 5

— OR —

Explain the role of the manufacturing sector in the development of the Indian economy, with suitable examples. 5

Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q18

Q18. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4

Large-scale deforestation, carried out to make way for agriculture, mining, and urban expansion, has significantly reduced India's forest cover over the past century. This loss of tree cover has contributed to soil erosion, disruption of local rainfall patterns, and loss of habitat for numerous plant and animal species. In response, the government and local communities have increasingly promoted afforestation programmes, community forestry initiatives, and stricter enforcement of forest protection laws to reverse this trend and conserve India's remaining forest wealth.

(i) Name one direct consequence of large-scale deforestation mentioned in the passage. (1)

(ii) Name one activity responsible for the loss of forest cover in India, as mentioned in the passage. (1)

(iii) Suggest two ways, based on the passage, in which forest cover can be conserved or restored. (2)

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PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE   (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. What is meant by "power sharing" in a democracy? 1

(A) Concentration of power in one leader(B) Distribution of power among different organs/levels/groups of government(C) Power held only by the majority community(D) Absence of any government

Q20. The failure to accommodate the aspirations of the Tamil minority, leading to prolonged civil conflict, is most closely associated with which country? 1

(A) Belgium(B) Sri Lanka(C) Nepal(D) Bhutan

Q21. A government formed when no single party wins a clear majority, requiring two or more parties to share power together, is called a: 1

(A) Presidential government(B) Coalition government(C) One-party government(D) Military government

Q22. Which of the following is an example of a social division that can influence politics in a democracy? 1

(A) Caste(B) Weather(C) Distance from the capital(D) Time zone

Q23. A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and various constituent regions/states of the country is called: 1

(A) Unitary government(B) Federalism(C) Monarchy(D) Autocracy

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q25

Q24. Explain any three features of a federal system of government. 3

Q25. Describe the role of local government (the "third tier") in strengthening democracy in India. 3

— OR —

Explain, with an example, how social divisions can sometimes strengthen democracy rather than weaken it. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q26

Q26. Explain the prudential and moral reasons for power-sharing in a democracy. 5

— OR —

Discuss the outcomes of democracy, evaluating whether democratic governments have been successful in achieving their expected goals in India. 5

Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q27

Q27. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4

Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced significant ethnic and linguistic diversity after gaining independence, but their political systems dealt with this diversity very differently. Belgium adopted a power-sharing arrangement that gave roughly equal representation and autonomy to its different linguistic communities, resulting in relative political stability. Sri Lanka, on the other hand, adopted policies that favoured the Sinhala majority over the Tamil minority in areas such as language, employment and education, which contributed to decades of civil conflict.

(i) Which country adopted a power-sharing arrangement giving roughly equal representation to its different communities? (1)

(ii) Name one area in which Sri Lankan policies favoured the majority community over the Tamil minority. (1)

(iii) Based on the comparison, explain why power-sharing arrangements are often considered important for maintaining stability in diverse societies. (2)

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PART IV — ECONOMICS   (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. In economic terms, "development" of a country or region is best understood as: 1

(A) Increase in income alone(B) Improvement in overall living standards, income, health and education together(C) Growth of the capital city only(D) Increase in exports only

Q29. Based on the nature of economic activity, the economy is divided into primary, secondary, and which other sector? 1

(A) Informal sector(B) Tertiary sector(C) Public sector(D) Unorganised sector

Q30. A situation where more people are engaged in an activity than actually needed, resulting in little or no addition to output, is called: 1

(A) Open unemployment(B) Disguised unemployment(C) Seasonal unemployment(D) Structural unemployment

Q31. Name one government scheme in India that aims to guarantee a minimum number of days of wage employment in rural areas. 1

(A) MGNREGA(B) Digital India(C) Make in India(D) Skill India

Q32. Which of the following is an example of a formal source of credit? 1

(A) Local moneylender(B) Commercial bank(C) Trader(D) Relative/friend

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q34

Q33. Explain any three factors, other than per capita income, that should be considered while assessing the development of a country or state. 3

Q34. Describe the role of the tertiary sector in generating employment in India in recent decades. 3

— OR —

Explain any three problems commonly associated with workers employed in the informal sector in India. 3

Section 3 — Long Answer (5 Marks) — Q35

Q35. Explain the role of credit in the process of economic development, giving examples of both its positive and negative outcomes for borrowers. 5

— OR —

Discuss the impact of globalisation on the Indian economy, considering its effects on producers, workers and consumers. 5

Section 4 — Source-Based Question (4 Marks) — Q36

Q36. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: 4

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of application, applicants are entitled to a daily unemployment allowance. The scheme aims not only to provide income security to rural households but also to create durable community assets such as roads, ponds, and irrigation infrastructure.

(i) How many days of guaranteed wage employment does MGNREGA provide per rural household per year? (1)

(ii) What happens if the government is unable to provide employment within 15 days of application under this scheme? (1)

(iii) Explain how a scheme like MGNREGA can contribute to rural development beyond simply providing wages. (2)

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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint & Analysis

1. Subject-wise (Part-wise) Marks Distribution

Part	Subject	Total Marks
I	History	20
II	Geography	20
III	Political Science	20
IV	Economics	20
Total		80

2. Section-wise Typology (per Part)

Section	Question Type	No. of Questions	Marks each	Marks per Part
1	Very Short Answer (MCQ)	5	1	5
2	Short Answer	2	3	6
3	Long Answer	1	5	5
4	Source-Based (1+1+2)	1	4	4
Total per Part				20

The same section-wise pattern (5+6+5+4 = 20 marks) is repeated identically across all four subject-wise parts, giving a paper total of 80 marks.

3. Competency-Level Distribution

Competency Level	Description	Approx. Marks	Percentage
Remembering & Understanding	Recall of facts, definitions, direct concept-based questions	40	50%
Applying	Application of concepts to explain, illustrate, or describe situations	24	30%
Analysing, Evaluating & Creating	Source-based reasoning, comparison, and evaluative long-answer questions	16	20%
Total		80	100%

4. Internal Choice Summary

Internal choices are provided in Q7, Q8, Q16, Q17, Q25, Q26, Q34 and Q35 — one question with a choice in Section 2 and Section 3 of every part, i.e. approximately one-third of the total questions across the paper.

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Answer Key

PART I — HISTORY

Q1. (B)   Q2. (B)   Q3. (B)   Q4. (B)   Q5. (A)

Q6. Withdrawal after Chauri Chaura reduced momentum; Council elections of 1923 diverted energies of some Congress leaders; differences between Swarajists and no-changers within Congress; economic hardships led some participants to withdraw over time (any three).

Q7. Women participated by picketing shops selling foreign cloth/liquor, joining protest marches, manufacturing salt during the Dandi March, and many went to jail — marking a significant break from traditional domestic roles. OR: The image of "Bharat Mata" was popularised by nationalist writers/artists (e.g., Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, Abanindranath Tagore) as a mother figure representing the nation, inspiring people to see the struggle for freedom as a devotion to the motherland.

Q8. WWI led to forced recruitment, increased taxes, and rising prices, causing widespread economic hardship and resentment against colonial rule; combined with the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre, this hardship and anger created the conditions for a mass movement, which Gandhi channelled into the Non-Cooperation Movement. OR: The Salt March broke a widely felt unjust law, mobilised diverse sections of society (peasants, women, business classes), attracted international attention to India's freedom struggle, and marked the start of large-scale civil disobedience across the country.

Q9. (i) Chauri Chaura, a small town in the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh). (ii) Gandhi withdrew the movement because he was deeply disturbed by the violence and believed people had not yet been sufficiently trained in disciplined non-violence. (iii) It reveals that maintaining strict non-violence across a large, spontaneous mass movement was extremely difficult, as local frustrations and provocations could easily lead to violent outbursts despite the movement's official non-violent strategy.

PART II — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. (B)   Q11. (C)   Q12. (B)   Q13. (B)   Q14. (A)

Q15. Relief/altitude, climate (temperature and rainfall), and soil type together determine the type and density of natural vegetation in a given region (any three factors explained).

Q16. Deforestation, overgrazing, unscientific mining, and industrial effluents/wastes all contribute to the degradation of land in various regions of India (any three explained).

OR: Rainwater harvesting, construction of dams/check dams, and watershed management/drip irrigation are common measures used to conserve and manage water resources sustainably (any three).

Q17. Major iron ore belts are found in Chhattisgarh-Odisha-Jharkhand region, Karnataka, and Maharashtra-Goa region; iron ore is vital as the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry, which in turn supports the entire manufacturing sector and infrastructure development. OR: The manufacturing sector adds value to raw materials, generates employment, promotes agriculture (through agro-based industries), reduces heavy dependence on agriculture, and helps in earning foreign exchange through exports.

Q18. (i) Soil erosion, disrupted rainfall patterns, or habitat/biodiversity loss (any one). (ii) Agriculture expansion, mining, or urban expansion (any one). (iii) Promoting afforestation programmes, and enforcing/strengthening forest protection laws alongside community-led conservation initiatives (any two).

PART III — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. (B)   Q20. (B)   Q21. (B)   Q22. (A)   Q23. (B)

Q24. There are two or more levels/tiers of government; each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation and administration; the fundamental provisions of the constitution generally cannot be unilaterally changed by one level alone (any three features explained).

Q25. Local governments bring decision-making closer to the people, allow for better understanding of and response to local needs, and increase citizen participation in governance through elected local bodies. OR: Social divisions, when accommodated through mechanisms like power-sharing or representation, can strengthen democracy by ensuring diverse groups feel included and represented, rather than excluded — e.g., the accommodation of linguistic diversity in India's federal structure.

Q26. Prudential reason: power-sharing reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups, ensuring political stability; moral reason: power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy, as it upholds the principle that people affected by a decision should have a say in it. OR: Democracy has generally led to more accountable and legitimate government, improved economic and social outcomes over time, and greater dignity and freedom for citizens in India, though challenges like inequality and corruption remain, showing progress is real but incomplete.

Q27. (i) Belgium. (ii) Language, employment, or education (any one area mentioned). (iii) Power-sharing arrangements help ensure that no community feels excluded or discriminated against, reducing resentment and the risk of conflict, and allowing diverse societies to function with greater political stability, as shown by the contrasting experiences of Belgium and Sri Lanka.

PART IV — ECONOMICS

Q28. (B)   Q29. (B)   Q30. (B)   Q31. (A)   Q32. (B)

Q33. Average years of schooling/literacy rate, life expectancy at birth, and access to basic amenities like clean water and healthcare are important non-income indicators of development (any three explained).

Q34. The tertiary sector, including trade, transport, banking, IT, and other services, has grown rapidly and now generates a large share of employment, particularly in urban areas, as the economy diversifies beyond agriculture. OR: Workers in the informal sector often face job insecurity, lack of minimum wage protection, absence of social security benefits, and unsafe working conditions (any three).

Q35. Credit can positively support development by enabling investment in agriculture, small businesses, and education, leading to higher incomes; however, credit can also become a "trap" when high-interest informal loans lead to debt burdens that borrowers struggle to repay, especially among farmers relying on informal moneylenders. OR: Globalisation has increased competition (positive for consumers through wider choice and lower prices, but challenging for small local producers), created new employment opportunities in some sectors (e.g., IT/BPO) while threatening jobs in others facing import competition, and generally increased economic interdependence between India and the rest of the world.

Q36. (i) At least 100 days per rural household per financial year. (ii) The applicant is entitled to receive a daily unemployment allowance. (iii) Beyond wages, the scheme creates durable community assets (roads, ponds, irrigation works), which can improve local infrastructure and support longer-term rural development, while also empowering rural households, especially women, through guaranteed income security.

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Detailed Marking Scheme

General Marking Guidelines

• Section 1 (MCQ): 1 mark for the correct option only; no partial credit.

• Section 2 (3-mark questions): 1 mark per valid point, up to a maximum of 3; each point should include a brief explanation, not just a label.

• Section 3 (5-mark questions): marks awarded for depth and range of explanation, relevant examples, and a well-organised answer covering multiple dimensions of the question.

• Section 4 (Source-based, 4 marks): each sub-part is marked independently as indicated (1, 1, 2); the 2-mark sub-part requires both a valid point and a clear explanation.

• Alternative correct points or examples not listed in the model answer should be given full credit if relevant and accurate.

Part-wise Mark Allocation Recap

Part	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3	Section 4	Total
I — History	5	6	5	4	20
II — Geography	5	6	5	4	20
III — Political Science	5	6	5	4	20
IV — Economics	5	6	5	4	20
Grand Total	20	24	20	16	80

This sample paper, blueprint, and answer key are prepared for CBSE Class X Social Science (087) practice, Session 2026-27, organised subject-wise into separate parts for History, Geography, Political Science and Economics, in line with the current CBSE Question Paper Design guidelines.

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