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Sunday, August 16, 2026

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 7 - 2026-27

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 7 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________ Roll No.: __________ Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Why did the image of Bharat Mata become an important symbol during the growth of Indian nationalism? 1
(A) It represented India as a geographical map only.(B) It personified the nation and created a shared national identity.(C) It promoted British political institutions.(D) It represented industrial development in India.
Q2. Which treaty recognised the independence of Greece and marked an important development in nineteenth-century nationalism in Europe? 1
(A) Treaty of Vienna(B) Treaty of Constantinople(C) Treaty of Versailles(D) Treaty of Frankfurt
Q3. What was the principal purpose of the Spinning Jenny in the history of industrialisation? 1
(A) To increase yarn production(B) To transport coal(C) To print newspapers(D) To produce steam engines
Q4. Which technology dramatically accelerated the production and circulation of printed material? 1
(A) Telegraph(B) Steamship(C) Printing press(D) Spinning Jenny
Q5. Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
Reason (R): Mahatma Gandhi believed that a movement based on non-violence could not continue after the Chauri Chaura incident.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Explain how the idea of a nation was constructed in Europe through symbols, language, culture and political movements during the nineteenth century. 3
Q7. Analyse three ways in which the First World War transformed the Indian economy and affected different sections of Indian society. 3
Q8. Explain why hand production continued to remain important even after the expansion of factories in Britain. Give any three reasons. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through the participation of different social groups, but their understanding of freedom was not identical.” Examine the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
“Print culture transformed the world of ideas and created new forms of public debate.” Analyse the statement with reference to Europe and India.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which statement best explains sustainable development of resources? 1
(A) Maximum extraction of resources in the present(B) Use of resources without considering future needs(C) Meeting present needs without compromising future generations(D) Complete prohibition of resource use
Q11. Which soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation in India? 1
(A) Alluvial soil(B) Black soil(C) Laterite soil(D) Arid soil
Q12. Which type of farming is characterised by growing a single crop on a large estate with substantial capital and labour? 1
(A) Primitive subsistence farming(B) Intensive subsistence farming(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Nomadic herding
Q13. Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy? 1
(A) Coal(B) Petroleum(C) Solar energy(D) Lignite
Q14. Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is an important method of conserving water resources.
Reason (R): It helps recharge groundwater and reduces dependence on surface water sources.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Analyse any three causes of land degradation in India and suggest one appropriate conservation measure for each cause. 3
Q16. Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and commercial farming on the basis of purpose, scale and use of technology. 3
Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron-ore producing area, (b) a major cotton textile centre, (c) a major software technology centre, (d) a multipurpose river valley project. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Minerals are indispensable for industrial development, yet their occurrence is unevenly distributed and their extraction creates environmental concerns.” Examine the statement and suggest measures for sustainable mineral use.6
— OR —
Explain the importance of manufacturing industries in the Indian economy. Discuss their contribution to employment, trade, value addition and balanced regional development.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Which of the following is an example of horizontal power sharing? 1
(A) Power between Union and State governments(B) Power among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(C) Power between rural and urban local bodies(D) Power between political parties and pressure groups
Q20. What is the principal objective of decentralisation? 1
(A) To concentrate power at the national level(B) To transfer power closer to local people(C) To abolish local governments(D) To reduce citizen participation
Q21. Which institution registers political parties and allots election symbols in India? 1
(A) Parliament(B) Supreme Court(C) Election Commission of India(D) Finance Commission
Q22. What is a coalition government? 1
(A) Government formed by one party with complete majority(B) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(C) Government formed only by independent candidates(D) Government formed by the judiciary
Q23. Assertion (A): Federalism can strengthen national unity in a diverse country.
Reason (R): It allows regional and linguistic communities to participate in governance while retaining a common national framework.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain how the power-sharing arrangement in Belgium helped prevent conflict between linguistic communities. 3
Q25. Analyse any three features that make Indian federalism different from a purely unitary system. 3
Q26. Explain any three major challenges faced by political parties in a democratic system. Why can these challenges weaken public trust? 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. “Democracy is not merely a system of elections; it is also a system of accountability and responsive governance.” Analyse the statement using suitable examples from democratic practice.6
— OR —
“Power sharing is desirable not only because it reduces the possibility of conflict, but also because it is the spirit of democracy.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments and examples.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Why is average income used for comparing the development of countries? 1
(A) Countries have identical populations(B) It removes the effect of differences in population size(C) It measures only literacy(D) It measures environmental quality
Q29. Which sector is directly linked with the extraction and production of natural resources? 1
(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Service sector only
Q30. What is collateral in the context of formal credit? 1
(A) Interest paid on a loan(B) An asset pledged as security for a loan(C) A bank deposit(D) A government subsidy
Q31. What does globalisation of production refer to? 1
(A) Production restricted to one village(B) Production organised across different countries(C) Complete end of international trade(D) Production only by public-sector firms
Q32. Assertion (A): Formal sources of credit are generally safer for borrowers than informal sources.
Reason (R): Formal credit is regulated by institutions and generally operates under established rules and interest conditions.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain why income alone cannot provide a complete picture of human development. Use three non-income indicators to support your answer. 3
Q34. Compare formal and informal sources of credit on the basis of regulation, interest rates and borrower protection. 3
Q35. Explain three ways in which multinational corporations influence the production process in developing countries. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. “Globalisation creates opportunities as well as challenges for producers and workers.” Critically examine the statement with reference to India, MNCs, technology, competition and employment.6
— OR —
Explain how money solves the problems of the barter system. Discuss the role of banks in accepting deposits, providing loans and connecting savers with borrowers.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
PartSection 1Section 2Section 3Total
A — History5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
B — Geography5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
C — Political Science5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
D — Economics5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
Total20362480
2. Chapter Coverage
SubjectMajor Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
HistoryThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
GeographyResources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political SciencePower Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
EconomicsDevelopment; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
Question TypeTotal QuestionsTotal MarksPrimary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason2020Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer1236Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer424Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total3680Mixed competency-based assessment
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
LevelIndicative WeightageFocus
BasicApprox. 30%Definitions, identification, core facts
ModerateApprox. 45%Application, explanation, comparison
AdvancedApprox. 25%Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 7
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (B)
Q3. (A)
Q4. (C)
Q5. (A)
Q6. National identity developed through common symbols, allegories, language, cultural traditions, folk practices and political movements demanding national unity and sovereignty.
Q7. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; demand for foodgrains and raw materials increased; forced recruitment and economic pressures affected rural society; exports and production patterns were altered.
Q8. Hand labour remained flexible; luxury and specialised goods required skilled workers; mechanisation was costly; seasonal demand and varying designs favoured hand production.
Q9. Participation included peasants, tribals, business groups, plantation workers and women, but their aspirations differed. Peasants sought relief from rents/revenue, business groups wanted protection and favourable economic conditions, tribals opposed forest restrictions, while women participated through marches and picketing. Gandhi's leadership provided a common national framework, though local objectives were not identical. OR: Print culture enabled wider circulation of ideas, encouraged debate, challenged authority, spread reformist and nationalist writings, and created new reading publics in Europe and India.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (C)
Q11. (B)
Q12. (C)
Q13. (C)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Deforestation — afforestation; overgrazing — controlled grazing; mining — reclamation/regulated mining; excessive irrigation — proper drainage and water management. Any three appropriate pairs.
Q16. Primitive subsistence farming is generally small-scale and focused on self-consumption with traditional tools; commercial farming is market-oriented, larger-scale and generally uses modern inputs, improved technology and greater capital.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples such as Bailadila/Noamundi, Mumbai/Ahmedabad, Bengaluru/Hyderabad, Bhakra-Nangal/Tehri.
Q18. Minerals provide raw material and energy inputs for industries, transport and construction, but deposits are unevenly distributed and extraction can cause land degradation, pollution and displacement. Sustainable use requires efficient extraction, recycling, improved technology, environmental safeguards and restoration of mined areas. OR: Manufacturing creates jobs, adds value to raw materials, supports trade, reduces dependence on primary activities and promotes regional development through industrial linkages.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (C)
Q22. (B)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Belgium accommodated linguistic diversity through equal representation, community government, regional governments and power-sharing arrangements in Brussels, reducing domination by one linguistic group.
Q25. Constitutional division of powers, multiple levels of government, independent jurisdiction in their areas, constitutional protection and decentralisation distinguish federal arrangements from a purely unitary system.
Q26. Lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power, limited meaningful choices and weak transparency can reduce accountability and public confidence.
Q27. Democracy requires elections as well as institutions that answer to citizens, respect rights, permit public debate and remain accountable. Transparency, opposition, media, judicial review and citizen participation strengthen responsiveness. OR: Power sharing reduces social conflict, accommodates diversity and prevents concentration of power. Belgium and India's federal arrangements demonstrate how inclusion can strengthen democratic stability.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (A)
Q30. (B)
Q31. (B)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Income does not reveal distribution; development also depends on health and education; public facilities and environmental quality affect well-being. Any three valid indicators/arguments.
Q34. Formal credit is regulated, generally has more transparent conditions and protects borrowers through institutional rules. Informal credit is often unregulated and may involve higher or arbitrary interest rates with weaker borrower protection.
Q35. MNCs bring investment, technology and production networks; they may create jobs and integrate local producers into global markets, but can also intensify competition and influence production decisions.
Q36. Globalisation can provide markets, technology, investment and employment, while also increasing competition and pressure on small producers and some workers. Its impact depends on access to technology, skills, infrastructure, fair policies and the ability of producers to compete. OR: Money provides a common medium of exchange, eliminating the double coincidence of wants. Banks accept deposits, keep savings secure, pay interest and use deposits to provide loans to borrowers, thereby facilitating economic activity.
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