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Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option. All questions are designed for conceptual understanding, application, analysis and CBSE-style competency practice.
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. Which development best explains why the French Revolution challenged the old European social order?
(A) It promoted equality before law and citizenship(B) It strengthened hereditary privileges(C) It restored feudal dues(D) It abolished all forms of trade
Q2. The idea of a nation-state in nineteenth-century Europe was closely associated with:
(A) A common national identity and political unity(B) Permanent dynastic rule(C) Expansion of feudal privileges(D) Isolation from neighbouring regions
Q3. Why did conservatives oppose many liberal-nationalist movements after 1815?
(A) They feared political instability and revolutionary change(B) They wanted universal suffrage immediately(C) They supported republican revolutions everywhere(D) They wanted to abolish monarchy completely
Q4. The Zollverein was significant because it:
(A) Removed internal trade barriers among many German states(B) Created the French Empire(C) Ended Italian nationalism(D) Established the League of Nations
Q5. Which statement best describes the role of culture in the growth of nationalism?
(A) Folk songs, language and symbols created a shared sense of identity(B) Culture had no connection with political ideas(C) Only military victories created nations(D) Nationalism rejected all cultural traditions
Q6. Which leader is associated with the idea of Young Italy?
(A) Giuseppe Mazzini(B) Otto von Bismarck(C) Metternich(D) Cavour
Q7. German unification was largely achieved under the leadership of:
(A) Otto von Bismarck(B) Mazzini(C) Garibaldi alone(D) Louis XVI
Q8. The Frankfurt Parliament of 1848 attempted to:
(A) Create a unified German nation through an elected assembly(B) Restore feudalism(C) Divide Germany permanently(D) Establish colonial rule in India
Q9. The Rowlatt Act was opposed because it:
(A) Allowed detention without trial and curtailed civil liberties(B) Granted complete freedom of the press(C) Ended colonial taxation(D) Established universal adult franchise
Q10. Why did Gandhiji choose salt as an important symbol of resistance?
(A) Salt was essential for ordinary people and was subject to colonial control(B) Salt was consumed only by wealthy Indians(C) Salt had no economic significance(D) Salt was produced only in Britain
Q11. The Dandi March demonstrated the principle of:
(A) Civil disobedience against an unjust colonial law(B) Armed revolution against all institutions(C) Support for colonial taxation(D) Withdrawal from public life
Q12. Which event most directly led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(A) Chauri Chaura incident(B) Dandi March(C) Simon Commission(D) Poona Pact
Q13. Why did some business groups support the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(A) They expected relief from colonial trade restrictions and economic policies(B) They wanted greater imports of foreign goods(C) They opposed Indian industries(D) They wanted to strengthen the salt monopoly
Q14. The participation of women in nationalist movements mainly demonstrated that:
(A) Nationalism could mobilise people across social groups(B) Only men could participate in politics(C) Women rejected all political activity(D) National movements were limited to cities
Q15. The Great Depression affected Indian peasants severely because:
(A) Agricultural prices fell while many peasants still had revenue and debt obligations(B) Agricultural prices doubled everywhere(C) Colonial taxes disappeared(D) India became independent immediately
Q16. Which factor helped integrate the nineteenth-century world economy?
(A) Railways, steamships and expanding international trade(B) Declining transport technology(C) Complete closure of ports(D) End of migration
Q17. Indentured labourers were taken to plantations mainly because:
(A) Employers sought cheap labour after the abolition of slavery(B) They were elected representatives(C) They owned the plantations(D) They were military officers
Q18. Why did food become an important component of global trade?
(A) Improved transport enabled movement of food over long distances(B) Food production became completely local(C) International migration stopped(D) Railways were abandoned
Q19. The invention of the printing press contributed to:
(A) Wider circulation of ideas and information(B) Decline of reading(C) End of public debate(D) Restriction of books to monarchs
Q20. Why did print culture become a concern for colonial governments?
(A) Printed material could spread criticism and political ideas(B) Printed material could not reach readers(C) Newspapers had no political impact(D) Books were used only for religious rituals
Q21. Vernacular newspapers in India helped:
(A) Create public discussion in Indian languages(B) Eliminate Indian languages(C) Stop social reform debates(D) Support only colonial officials
Q22. Which factor made printed books increasingly accessible to ordinary readers?
(A) Cheaper production and expanding literacy(B) Higher printing costs only(C) Decline of schools(D) Complete ban on newspapers
Q23. Assertion: Nationalism developed differently in different regions of Europe. Reason: Political, social and cultural conditions varied from region to region.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q24. Assertion: Print encouraged debate in nineteenth-century India. Reason: Printed texts could circulate reformist and political arguments widely.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q25. Which statement best explains the significance of nationalism in India?
(A) It provided a common anti-colonial platform while different groups retained different interests(B) It removed all social and economic differences(C) It was limited to one region(D) It rejected all cultural symbols
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q26. Resource planning is necessary in India mainly because:
(A) Resources are unevenly distributed and need sustainable management(B) Resources are unlimited(C) All regions have identical resources(D) Technology cannot affect resource use
Q27. Which condition makes a resource potentially usable in future?
(A) Availability of technology and knowledge to develop it(B) Complete absence of demand(C) Permanent prohibition(D) Lack of information
Q28. Which soil is known for its capacity to retain moisture?
(A) Black soil(B) Laterite soil(C) Arid soil(D) Forest soil
Q29. Alluvial soil is especially important for agriculture because it:
(A) Is generally fertile and supports intensive cultivation(B) Contains no nutrients(C) Occurs only in deserts(D) Cannot support crops
Q30. Which agricultural practice is most appropriate for conserving soil on slopes?
(A) Terrace cultivation(B) Overgrazing(C) Deforestation(D) Uncontrolled ploughing down the slope
Q31. Which crop is strongly associated with the black soil region of India?
(A) Cotton(B) Tea(C) Jute(D) Rubber
Q32. Which crop is mainly grown during the rabi season?
(A) Wheat(B) Rice(C) Cotton(D) Jute
Q33. Why are plantation crops generally grown on large estates?
(A) They require organised management and processing for commercial production(B) They are grown only for household consumption(C) They do not require labour(D) They cannot be transported
Q34. Which mineral is essential for the iron and steel industry?
(A) Iron ore(B) Mica(C) Limestone only(D) Salt
Q35. Why is mica important for electrical and electronic industries?
(A) It has excellent insulating properties(B) It is a liquid fuel(C) It is used as a food crop(D) It is a source of petroleum
Q36. Which industry is called a basic industry?
(A) Iron and steel(B) Tourism(C) Retail trade(D) Banking
Q37. Why is the cotton textile industry concentrated in certain regions?
(A) Availability of raw material, labour, markets, transport and other factors(B) Only because of rainfall(C) Only because of forests(D) Only because of mineral deposits
Q38. Which source of energy is inexhaustible on a human time scale?
(A) Solar energy(B) Coal(C) Petroleum(D) Natural gas
Q39. Why should India increase renewable energy use?
(A) To reduce dependence on exhaustible fuels and environmental damage(B) To increase coal consumption only(C) To stop technological development(D) To eliminate electricity generation
Q40. Rainwater harvesting primarily helps in:
(A) Groundwater recharge and water conservation(B) Increasing soil erosion(C) Reducing groundwater levels(D) Increasing deforestation
Q41. Which activity can cause land degradation if not properly managed?
Q43. Which port is located on the eastern coast of India?
(A) Paradip(B) Kandla(C) Mormugao(D) Mumbai
Q44. Which factor is especially important for locating a software technology industry?
(A) Skilled human resources and communication infrastructure(B) Proximity to coal mines only(C) Availability of cotton only(D) Dependence on river water only
Q45. Which industry is an agro-based industry?
(A) Sugar(B) Iron and steel(C) Cement(D) Aluminium
Q46. Which measure can reduce soil erosion in areas affected by wind?
(A) Shelter belts(B) Deforestation(C) Overgrazing(D) Open mining
Q47. Assertion: Manufacturing is important for economic development. Reason: It adds value to raw materials and generates employment.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q48. Assertion: Water conservation is necessary for sustainable development. Reason: Over-extraction can reduce groundwater availability.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q49. Which factor has made international trade and communication faster?
(A) Modern transport and digital communication(B) Decline of ports(C) Reduction in information technology(D) Closure of markets
Q50. Why is the tertiary sector important to manufacturing?
(A) Transport, banking, communication and trade support production(B) It replaces all raw materials(C) It eliminates markets(D) It prevents investment
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q51. Power sharing among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is called:
(A) Horizontal power sharing(B) Vertical power sharing(C) Community government(D) Coalition sharing
Q52. Power sharing between Union and State governments represents:
(A) Vertical power sharing(B) Horizontal power sharing(C) Party sharing(D) Social division
Q53. The prudential reason for power sharing is that it:
(A) Reduces conflict and increases political stability(B) Concentrates authority(C) Removes elections(D) Weakens representation
Q54. The moral reason for power sharing is based on:
(A) The spirit and values of democracy(B) The rule of one person(C) Military authority(D) Majoritarian domination
Q55. Belgium solved its linguistic conflict mainly through:
(A) Accommodation and power sharing(B) Majoritarian domination(C) Suppression of minorities(D) Abolition of elections
Q56. What was a major result of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?
(A) Alienation of Tamil communities and prolonged conflict(B) Complete national integration(C) End of ethnic tensions(D) Abolition of political parties
Q57. Federalism means:
(A) Constitutional division of power among different levels of government(B) Power concentrated in one government(C) Rule by the military(D) No division of powers
Q58. Which is a key feature of federalism?
(A) Two or more levels of government with constitutionally assigned powers(B) Only one level of government(C) No written rules(D) No independent judiciary
Q59. Why did India reorganise many states on linguistic lines?
(A) To accommodate linguistic identities within the federal system(B) To eliminate regional languages(C) To abolish state governments(D) To weaken democracy
Q60. Decentralisation means:
(A) Transfer of power to local governments(B) Concentration of power at the centre(C) Abolition of local bodies(D) Removal of elections
Q61. Which is a rural local government institution?
(A) Gram Panchayat(B) Municipal Corporation(C) Lok Sabha(D) Rajya Sabha
Q62. Which institution is responsible for urban local administration?
Q63. Political parties are necessary because they:
(A) Contest elections, form governments and shape public policies(B) Conduct judicial trials(C) Control all media(D) Replace the Constitution
Q64. Which challenge occurs when leadership remains concentrated within a family?
(A) Dynastic succession(B) Federalism(C) Decentralisation(D) Power sharing
Q65. Which challenge refers to insufficient internal elections in political parties?
(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Coalition politics(C) Federalism(D) Community government
Q66. A coalition government is generally formed when:
(A) No single party has sufficient majority and parties agree to govern together(B) There are no elections(C) One party is permanently banned(D) Judges form the government
Q67. Which reform can strengthen political parties?
(A) Greater transparency in political funding(B) Unlimited secret donations(C) No internal elections(D) Family-only leadership
Q68. Why are pressure groups different from political parties?
(A) Pressure groups usually seek to influence policy without directly forming governments(B) Pressure groups always contest every election(C) Political parties never seek power(D) Pressure groups form the judiciary
Q69. Which institution conducts elections to Parliament and State Legislatures?
(A) Election Commission of India(B) Finance Commission(C) Supreme Court only(D) Reserve Bank of India
Q70. Why is an independent judiciary important in a federal system?
(A) It can interpret the Constitution and settle disputes between levels of government(B) It abolishes elections(C) It controls all political parties(D) It removes state governments
Q71. Assertion: Federalism can accommodate diversity. Reason: Regional governments can address region-specific interests within constitutional limits.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q72. Assertion: Political parties are essential to representative democracy. Reason: They organise electoral competition and provide policy choices to voters.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q73. Which measure improves local democracy most directly?
(A) Regular elections and participation in local bodies(B) Removing local councils(C) Centralising all decisions(D) Ending public meetings
Q74. Why does power sharing strengthen democracy?
(A) It gives different groups and institutions a role in decision-making(B) It gives unlimited power to one group(C) It removes accountability(D) It prevents representation
Q75. Which development strengthened coalition politics in India?
(A) Rise of regional parties and recognition of diverse interests(B) Abolition of regional parties(C) End of state politics(D) Removal of elections
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q76. Which indicator directly measures the average income of a country?
(A) Per capita income(B) Literacy rate(C) Infant mortality rate(D) Life expectancy
Q77. Why is per capita income not sufficient to judge development?
(A) It does not show distribution of income or access to health and education(B) It measures only literacy(C) It always shows equality(D) It measures environmental quality
Q78. Which is an important public facility?
(A) Government healthcare(B) Luxury cars(C) Private jewellery(D) Advertising
Q79. Human development is better assessed when we consider:
(A) Income, health, education and other quality-of-life indicators(B) Income alone(C) Exports alone(D) Population alone
Q80. Which sector is directly dependent on natural resources?
(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Service sector only
Q81. Which activity belongs to the secondary sector?
Q83. Disguised unemployment is commonly found when:
(A) More people work on a task than are actually required(B) No worker is available(C) Workers are all highly productive(D) Employment exists only in banks
Q84. Why has the tertiary sector grown rapidly in India?
(A) Rising demand for services and support to other sectors(B) Decline of all services(C) End of communication(D) Closure of markets
Q85. Which is a formal source of credit?
(A) Bank(B) Moneylender(C) Trader(D) Relative
Q86. Collateral means:
(A) An asset used as security against a loan(B) A type of deposit(C) A bank employee(D) A government subsidy
Q87. Why can informal credit become expensive?
(A) It may involve high interest rates and unfavourable terms(B) It is always interest-free(C) It is always regulated(D) It never requires repayment
Q88. Self-help groups mainly help members by:
(A) Pooling savings and facilitating access to small loans(B) Abolishing all banks(C) Providing unlimited free money(D) Ending savings
Q89. Globalisation refers to:
(A) Increasing integration of economies through trade, investment and technology(B) Complete isolation of economies(C) End of international markets(D) Only village-level production
Q90. Which factor has accelerated globalisation?
(A) Rapid improvement in transport and information technology(B) Decline of communication(C) Reduction in trade(D) Closure of ports
Q91. MNC stands for:
(A) Multinational Corporation(B) National Monetary Council(C) Modern National Committee(D) Multi-Nation Consumer
Q92. Why do MNCs invest in different countries?
(A) To access markets, labour, resources, skills and production advantages(B) To avoid production(C) To stop trade(D) To eliminate technology
Q93. A major benefit of globalisation for consumers is:
(A) Greater choice and competitive products(B) Complete elimination of competition(C) Fewer product varieties(D) No technological change
Q94. A major challenge of globalisation for small producers can be:
(A) Competition from large domestic and international firms(B) Guaranteed monopoly(C) No competition(D) Automatic government protection
Q95. The Reserve Bank of India supervises:
(A) The functioning of formal banking institutions(B) School examinations(C) Election campaigns(D) Local road construction
Q96. Why do banks keep a portion of deposits with themselves?
(A) To meet withdrawal requirements and maintain liquidity(B) To stop all lending(C) To eliminate deposits(D) To prevent savings
Q97. Assertion: Development should be sustainable. Reason: Present resource use should not compromise the ability of future generations to meet their needs.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q98. Assertion: Globalisation has increased competition in Indian markets. Reason: Liberalisation enabled greater entry and interaction with foreign producers.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both are true but R does not explain A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is true
Q99. Which institution is associated with international trade rules?
(A) World Trade Organization(B) Election Commission of India(C) Reserve Bank of India(D) Gram Panchayat
Q100. Which policy can help small producers benefit from globalisation?
(A) Technology, skill development, infrastructure and access to credit(B) Complete isolation from markets(C) Removal of training(D) Ban on all technology
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Bank – 100 MCQ – 2026-27
CBSE CLASS X SOCIAL SCIENCE
Question Bank – 100 High-Level MCQs | Session 2026–27
Subject: Social ScienceType: MCQ / Assertion–ReasonTotal Questions: 100Difficulty: High-Level / Competency Based
Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option. Questions are designed for conceptual clarity, application, analysis and CBSE-style competency practice.
History — Question Bank
Q1. The French Revolution transferred sovereignty from the monarchy to the nation. Which principle was central to this change?
(A) Popular sovereignty(B) Divine right of kings(C) Feudal privilege(D) Absolute monarchy
Q2. Which development most directly encouraged economic unity among the German states before political unification?
(A) Zollverein(B) Treaty of Versailles(C) Congress of Vienna(D) Holy Alliance
Q3. Which symbol was commonly used to represent the German nation during the nineteenth-century nationalist movement?
(A) Germania(B) Marianne(C) Bharat Mata(D) Liberty Bell
Q4. What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(A) Restore conservative order in Europe(B) Create democratic republics everywhere(C) End all monarchies(D) Promote universal suffrage
Q5. Which ideology strongly supported individual freedom and equality before law?
Q8. Why was salt chosen as a symbol of protest by Gandhiji?
(A) It was an essential commodity affected by colonial taxation(B) It was consumed only by rich people(C) It was mainly exported to Europe(D) It had no connection with daily life
Q9. Which event led Gandhiji to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(A) Chauri Chaura incident(B) Jallianwala Bagh incident(C) Simon Commission(D) Dandi March
Q10. Which group was especially affected by the decline in agricultural prices during the Great Depression?
(A) Peasants(B) Colonial officials(C) European aristocrats(D) Urban judges
Q11. Which factor helped transform the world economy in the nineteenth century?
(A) Steamships and railways(B) Decline of transport(C) End of international trade(D) Closure of ports
Q12. Indentured labour was commonly described by workers as a system resembling what?
(A) A new system of slavery(B) Free citizenship(C) Democratic employment(D) Permanent land ownership
Q13. Which technology greatly increased the speed of printing during the Industrial Revolution?
(A) Power-driven printing press(B) Spinning Jenny(C) Steam plough(D) Telegraph only
Q14. Why did industrialists use advertisements and attractive packaging?
(A) To create demand and distinguish products(B) To reduce consumer choice(C) To stop competition(D) To end mass production
Q15. Which invention improved textile production by allowing multiple spindles to operate simultaneously?
Q16. Which development helped create a wider reading public in the nineteenth century?
(A) Cheaper printed books(B) Decline of literacy(C) Ban on newspapers(D) Closure of printing presses
Q17. How did print culture support social reform in India?
(A) It spread reformist ideas and public debate(B) It prevented discussion(C) It eliminated vernacular languages(D) It restricted reading to rulers
Q18. Why did colonial governments attempt to control newspapers?
(A) Newspapers could influence public opinion(B) Newspapers were used only for entertainment(C) They reduced political awareness(D) They had no political influence
Q19. Which movement brought the issue of indigo cultivators' exploitation into national attention?
(A) Indigo revolt(B) Swadeshi Movement(C) Quit India Movement(D) Khilafat Movement
Q20. Which idea best explains nationalism as an imagined community?
(A) People develop a shared sense of belonging to a nation(B) Only rulers define national identity(C) Nations exist without common identity(D) Nationalism rejects all cultural symbols
Q21. Assertion: The Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians. Reason: It allowed detention without trial in certain circumstances.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q22. Assertion: Print culture encouraged debate. Reason: Printed texts could circulate ideas among larger groups.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q23. Which group formed a significant part of the nationalist leadership in Europe?
(A) Educated middle class(B) Only feudal peasants(C) Only monarchs(D) Only soldiers
Q24. Why did Indian merchants initially support the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(A) They wanted protection from colonial economic policies(B) They wanted unrestricted British imports(C) They opposed Indian industries(D) They wanted to abolish trade
Q25. Which factor contributed to the growth of nationalism in India?
(A) Shared anti-colonial struggle(B) Expansion of colonial privileges(C) Decline of political awareness(D) Complete regional isolation
Geography — Question Bank
Q26. Which type of resource is available in a region but has not yet been fully utilised?
(A) Potential resource(B) Developed resource(C) Stock(D) Reserve
Q27. Why is resource planning essential in India?
(A) Resources are unevenly distributed and need sustainable management(B) Resources are unlimited(C) All resources are equally available(D) Technology has no role
Q28. Which soil is especially suitable for cotton cultivation?
(A) Black soil(B) Laterite soil(C) Arid soil(D) Mountain soil
Q29. Which soil develops under high temperature and heavy rainfall with intense leaching?
(A) Laterite soil(B) Black soil(C) Alluvial soil(D) Arid soil
Q30. Which farming type combines crop cultivation with animal rearing?
Q50. Why is manufacturing important to agriculture?
(A) It provides machinery, inputs and processing facilities(B) It eliminates agricultural production(C) It reduces market access(D) It prevents irrigation
Political Science — Question Bank
Q51. Which form of power sharing is seen among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary?
(A) Horizontal power sharing(B) Vertical power sharing(C) Community government(D) Coalition only
Q52. Which arrangement represents vertical power sharing?
(A) Union, State and local governments(B) Legislature and Judiciary(C) Political parties only(D) Pressure groups only
Q53. What is the main prudential reason for power sharing?
(A) It reduces conflict and political instability(B) It concentrates power(C) It ends elections(D) It weakens minorities
Q54. What is the moral reason for power sharing?
(A) It is the spirit of democratic participation(B) It increases authoritarianism(C) It removes citizen rights(D) It ends representation
Q55. Which country adopted accommodation to manage linguistic diversity?
(A) Belgium(B) Sri Lanka(C) Nepal only(D) Myanmar
Q56. What was a major consequence of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?
(A) Alienation and conflict among communities(B) Complete social harmony(C) End of political conflict(D) Abolition of language differences
Q57. What is federalism?
(A) A system with constitutional division of powers among levels of government(B) A system with only one government(C) Rule by judges(D) Military rule
Q58. Which feature is essential to federalism?
(A) Constitutional division of powers(B) No state governments(C) No judiciary(D) No elections
Q59. Why were states reorganised largely on linguistic lines in India?
(A) To accommodate linguistic identities(B) To abolish regional identities(C) To weaken democracy(D) To end local government
Q60. What is decentralisation?
(A) Transfer of power to local levels(B) Concentration of power at the centre(C) Abolition of municipalities(D) Removal of elections
Q61. Which body represents rural local government at village level?
(A) Gram Panchayat(B) Lok Sabha(C) Rajya Sabha(D) Supreme Court
Q62. Which body represents urban local government?
Q63. What is the main function of political parties?
(A) Contest elections and form governments(B) Conduct court trials(C) Prepare school textbooks only(D) Control the army
Q64. Which challenge refers to concentration of leadership within families?
(A) Dynastic succession(B) Federalism(C) Decentralisation(D) Power sharing
Q65. Which challenge refers to lack of meaningful internal elections within parties?
(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Federalism(C) Coalition government(D) Decentralisation
Q66. What is a coalition government?
(A) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(B) Government by judges(C) Government without elections(D) Government by one permanent ruler
Q67. Why are elections important in democracy?
(A) They enable citizens to choose representatives(B) They eliminate accountability(C) They prevent participation(D) They abolish political parties
Q68. Which reform can improve political party functioning?
(A) Regular internal elections(B) Concentration of all power in one leader(C) Secret unlimited funding(D) Family-only membership
Q69. Assertion: Federalism can strengthen national unity. Reason: It allows regional diversity to be accommodated within a common political system.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q70. Assertion: Political parties are necessary for representative democracy. Reason: They organise elections, aggregate interests and help form governments.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q71. Which institution conducts elections in India?
(A) Election Commission of India(B) Finance Commission(C) Planning Commission(D) NITI Aayog only
Q72. Which feature strengthens federalism?
(A) Independent judiciary to settle disputes(B) Abolition of state powers(C) Single-level government(D) No constitutional division
Q73. Why is local government important?
(A) Local problems can be addressed with local knowledge(B) It removes citizen participation(C) It eliminates accountability(D) It centralises decisions
Q74. Which democratic practice helps protect minority interests?
(A) Power sharing(B) Majoritarian domination(C) Political exclusion(D) Centralisation
Q75. Which political development strengthened regional parties in India?
(A) Coalition politics(B) End of state elections(C) Abolition of linguistic states(D) One-party rule everywhere
Economics — Question Bank
Q76. Which indicator is a non-income measure of development?
(A) Literacy rate(B) Per capita income only(C) Total exports only(D) Bank deposits only
Q77. Why is average income used to compare countries?
(A) It controls for differences in population size(B) All countries have equal population(C) It measures only health(D) It measures only education
Q78. Which public facility strongly influences quality of life?
(A) It is regulated and usually follows established terms(B) It never requires repayment(C) It is always interest-free(D) It is available only to rich people
Q87. What can happen when borrowers depend heavily on informal credit?
(A) They may face high interest and debt traps(B) They always become richer(C) Loans become automatically subsidised(D) All risks disappear
Q88. What is globalisation?
(A) Greater integration of production and markets across countries(B) Complete closure of markets(C) End of international trade(D) Only local production
Q89. What has enabled globalisation significantly?
(A) Improved transport and communication technology(B) Decline of communication(C) Closure of ports(D) Reduction in information flow
Q90. What is an MNC?
(A) A company that owns or controls production in more than one country(B) A local shop only(C) A government school(D) A village cooperative only
Q91. Why do MNCs locate production in different countries?
(A) To access markets, skills, resources and lower production costs(B) To avoid all markets(C) To eliminate technology(D) To prevent investment
Q92. Which group may face intense competition due to globalisation?
(A) Small producers(B) Only foreign governments(C) Only consumers(D) Only banks
Q93. How can consumers benefit from globalisation?
(A) Greater variety and competitive prices(B) Fewer choices(C) Higher monopoly in every market(D) No access to technology
Q94. Which institution regulates the monetary system and supervises banks in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India(B) Election Commission(C) Supreme Court(D) Gram Panchayat
Q95. Why do banks accept deposits?
(A) They use deposits as a major source for lending(B) To stop all lending(C) To eliminate savings(D) To prevent investment
Q96. Assertion: Development cannot be judged by income alone. Reason: Health, education and public facilities also affect well-being.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q97. Assertion: Formal credit can support economic development. Reason: It can provide loans for productive investment under regulated conditions.
(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true
Q98. Which organisation is associated with global trade rules?
(A) World Trade Organization(B) Election Commission(C) Reserve Bank of India(D) Gram Panchayat
Q99. Why can globalisation create challenges for small producers?
(A) They may face competition from larger firms and MNCs(B) They receive automatic monopoly(C) Competition disappears(D) Markets become completely local
Q100. Which policy can make globalisation more inclusive?
(A) Skill development and support for small producers(B) Complete closure of markets(C) Removal of all infrastructure(D) Ban on technology
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7 (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________
Roll No.: __________
Section: __________
General Instructions:
1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.
2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.
3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.
4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.
5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.
PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. A student argues that the Treaty of Vienna attempted to restore the old conservative order in Europe. Which evidence best supports the argument? 1
(A) It promoted universal adult franchise.(B) It restored monarchies and attempted to reverse many changes associated with Napoleonic rule.(C) It created a united democratic Germany.(D) It abolished all aristocratic privileges.
Q2. Which development most directly transformed the Salt March from a symbolic act into a mass political challenge? 1
(A) It challenged a tax affecting an essential commodity and encouraged wider participation.(B) It was restricted only to industrialists.(C) It supported the colonial salt monopoly.(D) It demanded the expansion of British trade.
Q3. Which statement best explains why the Great Depression affected colonial India differently from industrial countries? 1
(A) India was closely integrated into global agricultural markets and depended heavily on commodity exports.(B) India had no agricultural production.(C) India was completely isolated from world markets.(D) Indian peasants received guaranteed prices from the colonial government.
Q4. A colonial government attempts to restrict a newspaper because it criticises its policies. What does this reveal about the political significance of print culture? 1
(A) Print had no role in political debate.(B) Print could influence public opinion and therefore became a subject of political control.(C) Newspapers were read only by government officials.(D) Print eliminated political disagreement.
Q5.Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922. Reason (R): Gandhiji believed that the movement was becoming violent and that the principles of non-violence had to be preserved.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Explain how liberalism, conservatism and nationalism came into conflict during the political transformations of nineteenth-century Europe.3
Q7. Analyse why the participation of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement was important, yet their political roles remained limited in many formal decision-making spaces.3
Q8. Explain three ways in which industrialisation changed the lives and working conditions of workers in nineteenth-century Europe.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through a process of collective mobilisation, but different groups attached different meanings to freedom.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
Analyse the impact of print culture on the growth of public opinion and social reform in India.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. A region has abundant groundwater but faces falling water tables because extraction exceeds natural recharge. Which concept is most directly relevant? 1
(A) Sustainable use of resources(B) Mineral processing(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Industrial diversification
Q11. Which change would most likely make Indian agriculture more sustainable in a water-stressed region? 1
(A) Greater dependence on water-intensive crops(B) Efficient irrigation, crop diversification and water conservation(C) Continuous groundwater extraction(D) Removal of all traditional water systems
Q12. Why is bauxite an important mineral for modern industry? 1
(A) It is the principal ore of aluminium.(B) It is the principal ore of iron.(C) It is a fossil fuel.(D) It is a source of petroleum.
Q13. Which location factor becomes especially important for industries producing perishable goods? 1
(A) Proximity to raw materials and markets with efficient transport(B) Complete isolation from markets(C) Distance from all transport networks(D) Absence of communication facilities
Q14.Assertion (A): Road transport is especially useful for short-distance movement of goods and passengers. Reason (R): Roads provide door-to-door connectivity and can link production centres with railways, ports and markets.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. “Land degradation is both an environmental and an economic problem.” Explain the statement with three causes and their consequences.3
Q16. Analyse why the location of manufacturing industries depends on a combination of raw materials, labour, power, capital, transport and markets rather than on one factor alone.3
Q17. On the political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron and steel centre in Jharkhand, (b) a major software technology centre in Telangana, (c) a major multipurpose project on the Mahanadi, (d) a major seaport on the western coast.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Energy resources determine both economic growth and environmental sustainability.” Analyse India's dependence on conventional sources and explain why renewable energy is increasingly important.6
— OR —
Analyse the importance of water conservation and rainwater harvesting for sustainable development in India.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. In a democracy, why is sharing power among different organs of government considered desirable? 1
(A) It prevents any one organ from exercising unlimited power.(B) It removes the need for laws.(C) It makes elections unnecessary.(D) It gives all powers to the executive.
Q20. Which situation best illustrates vertical power sharing? 1
(A) Power shared among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(B) Power shared among Union, State and local governments(C) Power shared among political parties only(D) Power shared among pressure groups only
Q21. Which factor most strengthened the role of regional parties in Indian politics? 1
(A) Recognition of regional interests and the growth of coalition politics(B) Abolition of state governments(C) Complete disappearance of local issues(D) End of electoral competition
Q22. Which measure would most directly reduce the problem of money power in elections? 1
(A) Greater transparency in political funding and stricter enforcement of election rules(B) Removing election expenditure rules(C) Restricting voting rights(D) Allowing anonymous unlimited funding
Q23.Assertion (A): Belgium adopted accommodation to manage tensions among linguistic communities. Reason (R): Power sharing can reduce the possibility that a majority community will permanently dominate minorities.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain why majoritarianism can create instability in a democracy. Use the Belgian and Sri Lankan experiences to support your answer.3
Q25. Explain three ways in which decentralisation can make democracy more responsive and accountable.3
Q26. Why do citizens need political parties even when parties themselves face criticism? Explain three essential functions.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. Analyse how power sharing and federalism together help accommodate social and regional diversity in a democracy.6
— OR —
“Political parties are both a necessary condition for democracy and a source of democratic challenges.” Examine the statement and suggest reforms.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. A country records high average income but poor public healthcare and sanitation. Which conclusion is most appropriate? 1
(A) Income is the only measure of development.(B) Development must include public facilities and quality-of-life indicators.(C) Public facilities do not affect human well-being.(D) Average income automatically guarantees equal development.
Q29. A farmer hires a tractor service and pays a transport company to carry produce to market. Which sectors are represented by these services? 1
(A) Only primary sector(B) Tertiary sector(C) Only secondary sector(D) Only manufacturing sector
Q30. Why is formal credit important for economic development? 1
(A) It is generally regulated and can provide credit at relatively reasonable terms.(B) It always requires no repayment.(C) It eliminates all economic risk.(D) It is available only to large corporations.
Q31. An MNC shifts part of its production to India because of skilled labour, lower costs and access to markets. What does this illustrate? 1
(A) Globalisation of production(B) Complete economic isolation(C) Barter system(D) Decline of international investment
Q32.Assertion (A): Globalisation has increased competition among producers in India. Reason (R): Liberalisation has enabled greater interaction with international markets and foreign producers.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain why sustainability should be considered while comparing development options for different countries and communities.3
Q34. Analyse how the terms of credit can influence whether borrowing improves or worsens the economic condition of a borrower.3
Q35. Explain three ways in which globalisation has affected Indian consumers and one major challenge it creates for small producers.3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. Analyse the relationship among employment, productivity and the three sectors of the Indian economy. Explain why creating productive employment is more important than merely increasing the number of jobs.6
— OR —
Critically examine the role of MNCs in globalisation. Discuss both the opportunities they create and the risks they may pose for local producers.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
Part
Section 1
Section 2
Section 3
Total
A — History
5 × 1 = 5
3 × 3 = 9
1 × 6 = 6
20
B — Geography
5 × 1 = 5
3 × 3 = 9
1 × 6 = 6
20
C — Political Science
5 × 1 = 5
3 × 3 = 9
1 × 6 = 6
20
D — Economics
5 × 1 = 5
3 × 3 = 9
1 × 6 = 6
20
Total
20
36
24
80
2. Chapter Coverage
Subject
Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
History
The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography
Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political Science
Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
Economics
Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
Question Type
Total Questions
Total Marks
Primary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason
20
20
Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer
12
36
Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer
4
24
Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total
36
80
Mixed competency-based assessment
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
Level
Indicative Weightage
Focus
Basic
Approx. 30%
Definitions, identification, core facts
Moderate
Approx. 45%
Application, explanation, comparison
Advanced
Approx. 25%
Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 10
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (A)
Q3. (A)
Q4. (B)
Q5. (A)
Q6. Liberalism supported constitutional government and individual rights; conservatism defended traditional monarchical authority; nationalism challenged dynastic rule by seeking nation-based political unity. Their competing objectives shaped nineteenth-century Europe.
Q7. Women organised demonstrations, boycotted foreign cloth and liquor shops and participated in political mobilisation. However, social norms and gender expectations limited their access to leadership and formal political decision-making.
Q8. Industrialisation created factory employment but often involved long working hours, low wages, unsafe conditions, child labour and overcrowded urban settlements. Workers gradually developed associations and demands for reforms.
Q9. Different groups joined the national movement with distinct objectives: peasants sought revenue relief, business groups wanted favourable economic policies, workers and women participated in mobilisation, while some groups had local grievances. Nationalism created a common political platform without eliminating social differences. OR: Print expanded public debate, spread reformist ideas, connected readers and enabled criticism of social and political authority.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (A)
Q11. (B)
Q12. (A)
Q13. (A)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Causes include deforestation, overgrazing, mining, over-irrigation and industrial waste. Consequences include soil erosion, declining fertility, reduced agricultural productivity and ecological imbalance.
Q16. Industries choose locations by balancing several factors. Raw materials and power affect costs, labour provides skills, capital enables investment, transport connects inputs and markets, and markets determine demand. Modern industries often optimise several factors simultaneously.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples: an appropriate Jharkhand iron and steel centre, Hyderabad (Telangana), Hirakud (Odisha), and an appropriate western-coast seaport.
Q18. Conventional energy sources support industry and transport but are exhaustible and can cause pollution. Renewable sources such as solar, wind and biomass diversify the energy mix, reduce environmental pressure and strengthen long-term energy security. OR: Water conservation and rainwater harvesting recharge groundwater, reduce dependence on over-extraction, support irrigation and urban supply, and improve resilience to variable rainfall.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (A)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (A)
Q22. (A)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Majoritarianism can marginalise minorities and create distrust and conflict. Belgium reduced tensions through accommodation and power sharing, while Sri Lanka's majoritarian policies generated alienation and prolonged conflict.
Q25. Local governments identify local needs, encourage direct participation and improve accountability. They also enable decisions to reflect local knowledge and can bring governance closer to citizens.
Q26. Parties contest elections, aggregate interests, form governments, shape public policy and provide political choices to citizens. These functions make representative democracy workable.
Q27. Power sharing protects minority interests and prevents concentration of authority; federalism distributes powers territorially and accommodates regional diversity. Together, they create institutional mechanisms for participation, negotiation and peaceful conflict management. OR: Parties are essential for elections and representation but face internal democracy, dynastic succession, money power and transparency challenges. Reforms should strengthen internal elections, financial disclosure, participation and accountability.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (B)
Q30. (A)
Q31. (A)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Development choices affect future generations and the environment. Sustainable options conserve resources, reduce pollution and ensure that present improvements do not undermine future well-being.
Q34. Interest rates, collateral, repayment period and other conditions determine the burden of a loan. Reasonable terms can support productive investment, while high interest and harsh conditions can lead to debt traps.
Q35. Consumers have greater variety, improved quality, competitive prices and access to new products. Small producers may face stronger competition from MNCs and imports, requiring technology, skills and market support.
Q36. The primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are interdependent. Productivity growth and structural change can shift employment toward higher-value activities. Productive employment matters because jobs should generate adequate income, output and sustainable livelihoods rather than merely increase the number of workers employed. OR: MNCs bring investment, technology, employment and market links, but can intensify competition and pressure small producers. The impact depends on policy, skills, infrastructure and support for domestic enterprises.
Answer Key | Sample Paper 10 | www.careerinformationportal.in
