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Sunday, August 16, 2026

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 8 - 2026-27

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 8 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________ Roll No.: __________ Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Which development best explains how nationalism became closely associated with liberalism in nineteenth-century Europe? 1
(A) Restoration of absolute monarchies(B) Demand for individual rights, constitutional government and equality before law(C) Expansion of feudal privileges(D) Suppression of representative institutions
Q2. Which event marked the formal declaration of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Indian National Congress? 1
(A) Lahore Congress Session, 1929(B) Nagpur Congress Session, 1920(C) Lucknow Congress Session, 1916(D) Calcutta Congress Session, 1906
Q3. Why did Indian merchants and industrialists support the Civil Disobedience Movement during its early phase? 1
(A) They wanted greater protection from colonial economic policies.(B) They wanted to abolish all Indian industries.(C) They opposed the expansion of Indian markets.(D) They supported unrestricted British imports.
Q4. Which factor most directly contributed to the rapid spread of print culture in nineteenth-century India? 1
(A) Decline of vernacular languages(B) Expansion of print technology and a growing reading public(C) Complete control of printing by village communities(D) Disappearance of religious publications
Q5. Assertion (A): The Rowlatt Act generated widespread opposition in India.
Reason (R): It empowered the colonial government to repress political activities and detain political prisoners without trial.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Analyse how the French Revolution contributed to the emergence of the idea of the nation-state in Europe. 3
Q7. Explain any three ways in which the Great Depression affected Indian peasants and agricultural production. 3
Q8. Why did industrialists in Britain increasingly use advertisements and attractive packaging during the expansion of consumer markets? Explain three reasons. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “The Civil Disobedience Movement was a broad-based movement, but its meaning varied for different social groups.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
Explain how the development of print culture changed the lives of women, workers and reformers in India. Use suitable examples.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which category of resources can be developed and used with available technology but has not yet been fully utilised? 1
(A) Developed resources(B) Stock(C) Potential resources(D) Reserves
Q11. Which cropping pattern is most closely associated with the intensive cultivation of land to meet food requirements in densely populated regions? 1
(A) Intensive subsistence farming(B) Plantation agriculture(C) Commercial grain farming(D) Nomadic herding
Q12. Which mineral is the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry? 1
(A) Manganese(B) Iron ore(C) Limestone(D) Mica
Q13. Which industry is often called a basic industry because its products are used as raw materials for many other industries? 1
(A) Textile industry(B) Iron and steel industry(C) Tourism industry(D) Electronics retail
Q14. Assertion (A): Multipurpose river valley projects are often called “temples of modern India”.
Reason (R): They can provide irrigation, electricity, flood control and water supply, though they may also create social and environmental costs.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Explain three major factors responsible for water scarcity in India, even in regions receiving substantial rainfall. 3
Q16. Distinguish between agro-based and mineral-based industries with suitable examples and explain why their location is influenced by raw materials. 3
Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) Bhilai iron and steel plant, (b) a major tea-producing state, (c) Tehri Dam, (d) Bengaluru software technology centre. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Resource planning is essential for sustainable development in India.” Explain the need for resource planning and discuss its major stages.6
— OR —
Analyse the role of transport and communication in the development of manufacturing industries and national markets in India.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Which form of power sharing involves the participation of different social groups in governance? 1
(A) Power sharing among organs of government(B) Power sharing among social groups(C) Power sharing among levels of government(D) Power sharing among political parties only
Q20. Which constitutional arrangement best demonstrates the federal principle in India? 1
(A) Division of powers between different levels of government(B) Complete concentration of powers in the Union(C) Absence of state governments(D) Rule by a single political party
Q21. Which of the following is a major function of political parties? 1
(A) Conducting judicial review(B) Contesting elections and forming governments(C) Preparing the national census only(D) Controlling the armed forces
Q22. Which challenge refers to the concentration of political leadership within family members? 1
(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Dynastic succession(C) Federalism(D) Coalition politics
Q23. Assertion (A): Decentralisation can deepen democracy at the grassroots level.
Reason (R): It allows local people to participate directly in decisions affecting their communities.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain how power sharing can be both prudential and moral in a democracy. 3
Q25. Explain any three ways in which linguistic accommodation strengthened Indian federalism. 3
Q26. Why is internal democracy within political parties important? Explain three consequences of its absence. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. “Federalism in India has evolved through both constitutional arrangements and political practice.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
“Political parties are indispensable to representative democracy, yet they face serious organisational and ethical challenges.” Discuss the statement critically.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Which combination best represents important non-income indicators of development? 1
(A) Health and education(B) Exports and imports only(C) Bank deposits only(D) Industrial output only
Q29. Which sector includes manufacturing and processing of raw materials into finished goods? 1
(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Informal sector only
Q30. Which institution is an important formal source of credit in India? 1
(A) Moneylender(B) Trader(C) Commercial bank(D) Relative
Q31. Which factor has significantly enabled the expansion of globalisation? 1
(A) Improved information and communication technology(B) Complete closure of markets(C) Decline of transport facilities(D) Elimination of international investment
Q32. Assertion (A): Banks play an important role in the economic development of a country.
Reason (R): Banks accept deposits and use a major portion of these deposits to provide loans for productive activities.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain why public facilities such as healthcare, sanitation and education are important for assessing development. 3
Q34. Analyse three reasons why poor borrowers may depend on informal sources of credit despite their disadvantages. 3
Q35. Explain how MNCs organise production globally and identify three ways in which local producers may be affected. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. “The tertiary sector has become increasingly important in the Indian economy.” Explain the reasons for its growth and discuss its role in employment and economic development.6
— OR —
Critically examine the impact of globalisation on consumers and small producers in India. Suggest measures that can make globalisation more inclusive.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
PartSection 1Section 2Section 3Total
A — History5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
B — Geography5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
C — Political Science5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
D — Economics5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
Total20362480
2. Chapter Coverage
SubjectMajor Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
HistoryThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
GeographyResources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political SciencePower Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
EconomicsDevelopment; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
Question TypeTotal QuestionsTotal MarksPrimary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason2020Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer1236Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer424Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total3680Mixed competency-based assessment
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
LevelIndicative WeightageFocus
BasicApprox. 30%Definitions, identification, core facts
ModerateApprox. 45%Application, explanation, comparison
AdvancedApprox. 25%Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 8
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (B)
Q3. (A)
Q4. (C)
Q5. (A)
Q6. National identity developed through common symbols, allegories, language, cultural traditions, folk practices and political movements demanding national unity and sovereignty.
Q7. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; demand for foodgrains and raw materials increased; forced recruitment and economic pressures affected rural society; exports and production patterns were altered.
Q8. Hand labour remained flexible; luxury and specialised goods required skilled workers; mechanisation was costly; seasonal demand and varying designs favoured hand production.
Q9. Participation included peasants, tribals, business groups, plantation workers and women, but their aspirations differed. Peasants sought relief from rents/revenue, business groups wanted protection and favourable economic conditions, tribals opposed forest restrictions, while women participated through marches and picketing. Gandhi's leadership provided a common national framework, though local objectives were not identical. OR: Print culture enabled wider circulation of ideas, encouraged debate, challenged authority, spread reformist and nationalist writings, and created new reading publics in Europe and India.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (C)
Q11. (B)
Q12. (C)
Q13. (C)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Deforestation — afforestation; overgrazing — controlled grazing; mining — reclamation/regulated mining; excessive irrigation — proper drainage and water management. Any three appropriate pairs.
Q16. Primitive subsistence farming is generally small-scale and focused on self-consumption with traditional tools; commercial farming is market-oriented, larger-scale and generally uses modern inputs, improved technology and greater capital.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples such as Bailadila/Noamundi, Mumbai/Ahmedabad, Bengaluru/Hyderabad, Bhakra-Nangal/Tehri.
Q18. Minerals provide raw material and energy inputs for industries, transport and construction, but deposits are unevenly distributed and extraction can cause land degradation, pollution and displacement. Sustainable use requires efficient extraction, recycling, improved technology, environmental safeguards and restoration of mined areas. OR: Manufacturing creates jobs, adds value to raw materials, supports trade, reduces dependence on primary activities and promotes regional development through industrial linkages.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (C)
Q22. (B)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Belgium accommodated linguistic diversity through equal representation, community government, regional governments and power-sharing arrangements in Brussels, reducing domination by one linguistic group.
Q25. Constitutional division of powers, multiple levels of government, independent jurisdiction in their areas, constitutional protection and decentralisation distinguish federal arrangements from a purely unitary system.
Q26. Lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power, limited meaningful choices and weak transparency can reduce accountability and public confidence.
Q27. Democracy requires elections as well as institutions that answer to citizens, respect rights, permit public debate and remain accountable. Transparency, opposition, media, judicial review and citizen participation strengthen responsiveness. OR: Power sharing reduces social conflict, accommodates diversity and prevents concentration of power. Belgium and India's federal arrangements demonstrate how inclusion can strengthen democratic stability.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (A)
Q30. (B)
Q31. (B)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Income does not reveal distribution; development also depends on health and education; public facilities and environmental quality affect well-being. Any three valid indicators/arguments.
Q34. Formal credit is regulated, generally has more transparent conditions and protects borrowers through institutional rules. Informal credit is often unregulated and may involve higher or arbitrary interest rates with weaker borrower protection.
Q35. MNCs bring investment, technology and production networks; they may create jobs and integrate local producers into global markets, but can also intensify competition and influence production decisions.
Q36. Globalisation can provide markets, technology, investment and employment, while also increasing competition and pressure on small producers and some workers. Its impact depends on access to technology, skills, infrastructure, fair policies and the ability of producers to compete. OR: Money provides a common medium of exchange, eliminating the double coincidence of wants. Banks accept deposits, keep savings secure, pay interest and use deposits to provide loans to borrowers, thereby facilitating economic activity.
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 7 - 2026-27

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 7 - 2026-27
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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)
Class: X (10th)
Subject: Social Science — Code: 087
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
Student Name: ______________________ Roll No.: __________ Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer  (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5
Q1. Why did the image of Bharat Mata become an important symbol during the growth of Indian nationalism? 1
(A) It represented India as a geographical map only.(B) It personified the nation and created a shared national identity.(C) It promoted British political institutions.(D) It represented industrial development in India.
Q2. Which treaty recognised the independence of Greece and marked an important development in nineteenth-century nationalism in Europe? 1
(A) Treaty of Vienna(B) Treaty of Constantinople(C) Treaty of Versailles(D) Treaty of Frankfurt
Q3. What was the principal purpose of the Spinning Jenny in the history of industrialisation? 1
(A) To increase yarn production(B) To transport coal(C) To print newspapers(D) To produce steam engines
Q4. Which technology dramatically accelerated the production and circulation of printed material? 1
(A) Telegraph(B) Steamship(C) Printing press(D) Spinning Jenny
Q5. Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
Reason (R): Mahatma Gandhi believed that a movement based on non-violence could not continue after the Chauri Chaura incident.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8
Q6. Explain how the idea of a nation was constructed in Europe through symbols, language, culture and political movements during the nineteenth century. 3
Q7. Analyse three ways in which the First World War transformed the Indian economy and affected different sections of Indian society. 3
Q8. Explain why hand production continued to remain important even after the expansion of factories in Britain. Give any three reasons. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9
Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through the participation of different social groups, but their understanding of freedom was not identical.” Examine the statement with suitable examples.6
— OR —
“Print culture transformed the world of ideas and created new forms of public debate.” Analyse the statement with reference to Europe and India.
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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14
Q10. Which statement best explains sustainable development of resources? 1
(A) Maximum extraction of resources in the present(B) Use of resources without considering future needs(C) Meeting present needs without compromising future generations(D) Complete prohibition of resource use
Q11. Which soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation in India? 1
(A) Alluvial soil(B) Black soil(C) Laterite soil(D) Arid soil
Q12. Which type of farming is characterised by growing a single crop on a large estate with substantial capital and labour? 1
(A) Primitive subsistence farming(B) Intensive subsistence farming(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Nomadic herding
Q13. Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy? 1
(A) Coal(B) Petroleum(C) Solar energy(D) Lignite
Q14. Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is an important method of conserving water resources.
Reason (R): It helps recharge groundwater and reduces dependence on surface water sources.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17
Q15. Analyse any three causes of land degradation in India and suggest one appropriate conservation measure for each cause. 3
Q16. Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and commercial farming on the basis of purpose, scale and use of technology. 3
Q17. On a political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron-ore producing area, (b) a major cotton textile centre, (c) a major software technology centre, (d) a multipurpose river valley project. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18
Q18. “Minerals are indispensable for industrial development, yet their occurrence is unevenly distributed and their extraction creates environmental concerns.” Examine the statement and suggest measures for sustainable mineral use.6
— OR —
Explain the importance of manufacturing industries in the Indian economy. Discuss their contribution to employment, trade, value addition and balanced regional development.
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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23
Q19. Which of the following is an example of horizontal power sharing? 1
(A) Power between Union and State governments(B) Power among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(C) Power between rural and urban local bodies(D) Power between political parties and pressure groups
Q20. What is the principal objective of decentralisation? 1
(A) To concentrate power at the national level(B) To transfer power closer to local people(C) To abolish local governments(D) To reduce citizen participation
Q21. Which institution registers political parties and allots election symbols in India? 1
(A) Parliament(B) Supreme Court(C) Election Commission of India(D) Finance Commission
Q22. What is a coalition government? 1
(A) Government formed by one party with complete majority(B) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(C) Government formed only by independent candidates(D) Government formed by the judiciary
Q23. Assertion (A): Federalism can strengthen national unity in a diverse country.
Reason (R): It allows regional and linguistic communities to participate in governance while retaining a common national framework.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26
Q24. Explain how the power-sharing arrangement in Belgium helped prevent conflict between linguistic communities. 3
Q25. Analyse any three features that make Indian federalism different from a purely unitary system. 3
Q26. Explain any three major challenges faced by political parties in a democratic system. Why can these challenges weaken public trust? 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27
Q27. “Democracy is not merely a system of elections; it is also a system of accountability and responsive governance.” Analyse the statement using suitable examples from democratic practice.6
— OR —
“Power sharing is desirable not only because it reduces the possibility of conflict, but also because it is the spirit of democracy.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments and examples.
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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Section 1 — Very Short Answer (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32
Q28. Why is average income used for comparing the development of countries? 1
(A) Countries have identical populations(B) It removes the effect of differences in population size(C) It measures only literacy(D) It measures environmental quality
Q29. Which sector is directly linked with the extraction and production of natural resources? 1
(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Service sector only
Q30. What is collateral in the context of formal credit? 1
(A) Interest paid on a loan(B) An asset pledged as security for a loan(C) A bank deposit(D) A government subsidy
Q31. What does globalisation of production refer to? 1
(A) Production restricted to one village(B) Production organised across different countries(C) Complete end of international trade(D) Production only by public-sector firms
Q32. Assertion (A): Formal sources of credit are generally safer for borrowers than informal sources.
Reason (R): Formal credit is regulated by institutions and generally operates under established rules and interest conditions.1
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.
Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35
Q33. Explain why income alone cannot provide a complete picture of human development. Use three non-income indicators to support your answer. 3
Q34. Compare formal and informal sources of credit on the basis of regulation, interest rates and borrower protection. 3
Q35. Explain three ways in which multinational corporations influence the production process in developing countries. 3
Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36
Q36. “Globalisation creates opportunities as well as challenges for producers and workers.” Critically examine the statement with reference to India, MNCs, technology, competition and employment.6
— OR —
Explain how money solves the problems of the barter system. Discuss the role of banks in accepting deposits, providing loans and connecting savers with borrowers.
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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint
1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint
PartSection 1Section 2Section 3Total
A — History5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
B — Geography5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
C — Political Science5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
D — Economics5 × 1 = 53 × 3 = 91 × 6 = 620
Total20362480
2. Chapter Coverage
SubjectMajor Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
HistoryThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
GeographyResources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political SciencePower Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
EconomicsDevelopment; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy
3. Question Typology & Competency Focus
Question TypeTotal QuestionsTotal MarksPrimary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason2020Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer1236Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer424Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total3680Mixed competency-based assessment
4. Difficulty & Competency Design
LevelIndicative WeightageFocus
BasicApprox. 30%Definitions, identification, core facts
ModerateApprox. 45%Application, explanation, comparison
AdvancedApprox. 25%Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning
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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 7
PART A — HISTORY
Q1. (B)
Q2. (B)
Q3. (A)
Q4. (C)
Q5. (A)
Q6. National identity developed through common symbols, allegories, language, cultural traditions, folk practices and political movements demanding national unity and sovereignty.
Q7. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; demand for foodgrains and raw materials increased; forced recruitment and economic pressures affected rural society; exports and production patterns were altered.
Q8. Hand labour remained flexible; luxury and specialised goods required skilled workers; mechanisation was costly; seasonal demand and varying designs favoured hand production.
Q9. Participation included peasants, tribals, business groups, plantation workers and women, but their aspirations differed. Peasants sought relief from rents/revenue, business groups wanted protection and favourable economic conditions, tribals opposed forest restrictions, while women participated through marches and picketing. Gandhi's leadership provided a common national framework, though local objectives were not identical. OR: Print culture enabled wider circulation of ideas, encouraged debate, challenged authority, spread reformist and nationalist writings, and created new reading publics in Europe and India.
PART B — GEOGRAPHY
Q10. (C)
Q11. (B)
Q12. (C)
Q13. (C)
Q14. (A)
Q15. Deforestation — afforestation; overgrazing — controlled grazing; mining — reclamation/regulated mining; excessive irrigation — proper drainage and water management. Any three appropriate pairs.
Q16. Primitive subsistence farming is generally small-scale and focused on self-consumption with traditional tools; commercial farming is market-oriented, larger-scale and generally uses modern inputs, improved technology and greater capital.
Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples such as Bailadila/Noamundi, Mumbai/Ahmedabad, Bengaluru/Hyderabad, Bhakra-Nangal/Tehri.
Q18. Minerals provide raw material and energy inputs for industries, transport and construction, but deposits are unevenly distributed and extraction can cause land degradation, pollution and displacement. Sustainable use requires efficient extraction, recycling, improved technology, environmental safeguards and restoration of mined areas. OR: Manufacturing creates jobs, adds value to raw materials, supports trade, reduces dependence on primary activities and promotes regional development through industrial linkages.
PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE
Q19. (B)
Q20. (B)
Q21. (C)
Q22. (B)
Q23. (A)
Q24. Belgium accommodated linguistic diversity through equal representation, community government, regional governments and power-sharing arrangements in Brussels, reducing domination by one linguistic group.
Q25. Constitutional division of powers, multiple levels of government, independent jurisdiction in their areas, constitutional protection and decentralisation distinguish federal arrangements from a purely unitary system.
Q26. Lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power, limited meaningful choices and weak transparency can reduce accountability and public confidence.
Q27. Democracy requires elections as well as institutions that answer to citizens, respect rights, permit public debate and remain accountable. Transparency, opposition, media, judicial review and citizen participation strengthen responsiveness. OR: Power sharing reduces social conflict, accommodates diversity and prevents concentration of power. Belgium and India's federal arrangements demonstrate how inclusion can strengthen democratic stability.
PART D — ECONOMICS
Q28. (B)
Q29. (A)
Q30. (B)
Q31. (B)
Q32. (A)
Q33. Income does not reveal distribution; development also depends on health and education; public facilities and environmental quality affect well-being. Any three valid indicators/arguments.
Q34. Formal credit is regulated, generally has more transparent conditions and protects borrowers through institutional rules. Informal credit is often unregulated and may involve higher or arbitrary interest rates with weaker borrower protection.
Q35. MNCs bring investment, technology and production networks; they may create jobs and integrate local producers into global markets, but can also intensify competition and influence production decisions.
Q36. Globalisation can provide markets, technology, investment and employment, while also increasing competition and pressure on small producers and some workers. Its impact depends on access to technology, skills, infrastructure, fair policies and the ability of producers to compete. OR: Money provides a common medium of exchange, eliminating the double coincidence of wants. Banks accept deposits, keep savings secure, pay interest and use deposits to provide loans to borrowers, thereby facilitating economic activity.
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Determine the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 5.0 g of NaOH in 450 mL of solution.

1. Determine the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 5.0 g of NaOH in 450 mL of solution. 1. 450 mL विलयन में 5.0 g NaOH घोलकर बनाए गए विलयन की मोलरता ज्ञात कीजिए। +
Given Data
Mass of NaOH = 5.0 g
Volume of solution = 450 mL
Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g mol−1
Formula
M = n / V
Where:

M = Molarity
n = Number of moles of solute
V = Volume of solution in litres
Step 1: Calculate Moles of NaOH
Number of moles:

n = Mass / Molar Mass

n = 5.0 / 40

n = 0.125 mol
Step 2: Convert Volume into Litres
Given volume = 450 mL

Since:
1000 mL = 1 L

Therefore:

V = 450 / 1000

V = 0.450 L
Step 3: Calculate Molarity
Using:

M = n / V

M = 0.125 / 0.450

M = 0.2778 mol L−1
Final Answer
The molarity of the NaOH solution is approximately 0.278 M.
Quick Method
M = (Mass × 1000) / (Molar Mass × Volume in mL)
Substituting:

M = (5.0 × 1000) / (40 × 450)

M = 0.278 M
Concept
Molarity is the number of moles of solute present in one litre of solution. Therefore, the volume must always be converted from mL to L before using the formula M = n/V.
दिया गया है
NaOH का द्रव्यमान = 5.0 g
विलयन का आयतन = 450 mL
NaOH का मोलर द्रव्यमान = 40 g mol−1
सूत्र
M = n / V
जहाँ:

M = मोलरता
n = विलेय के मोलों की संख्या
V = विलयन का आयतन लीटर में
चरण 1: NaOH के मोल ज्ञात कीजिए
मोलों की संख्या:

n = द्रव्यमान / मोलर द्रव्यमान

n = 5.0 / 40

n = 0.125 mol
चरण 2: आयतन को लीटर में बदलें
दिया गया आयतन = 450 mL

हम जानते हैं:
1000 mL = 1 L

इसलिए:

V = 450 / 1000

V = 0.450 L
चरण 3: मोलरता ज्ञात कीजिए
सूत्र:

M = n / V

M = 0.125 / 0.450

M = 0.2778 mol L−1
अंतिम उत्तर
NaOH विलयन की मोलरता लगभग 0.278 M है।
सीधी विधि
M = (द्रव्यमान × 1000) / (मोलर द्रव्यमान × आयतन mL में)
मान रखने पर:

M = (5.0 × 1000) / (40 × 450)

M = 0.278 M
Concept
मोलरता वह संख्या है जो बताती है कि एक लीटर विलयन में विलेय के कितने मोल उपस्थित हैं। इसलिए M = n/V सूत्र में आयतन को लीटर में लेना आवश्यक है।
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30 Related MCQs 30 संबंधित MCQs
1. The molar mass of NaOH is:
A. 23 g mol−1
B. 40 g mol−1
C. 58.5 g mol−1
D. 18 g mol−1
Answer: B. 40 g mol−1
2. The number of moles present in 5.0 g NaOH is:
A. 0.025 mol
B. 0.125 mol
C. 0.25 mol
D. 1.25 mol
Answer: B. 0.125 mol
3. 450 mL is equal to:
A. 4.50 L
B. 0.045 L
C. 0.450 L
D. 45.0 L
Answer: C. 0.450 L
4. The formula for molarity is:
A. M = V/n
B. M = n/V
C. M = n × V
D. M = V × mass
Answer: B. M = n/V
5. The molarity of the given NaOH solution is approximately:
A. 0.028 M
B. 0.278 M
C. 2.78 M
D. 27.8 M
Answer: B. 0.278 M
6. Molarity is expressed in:
A. mol kg−1
B. mol L−1
C. g L−1 only
D. kg mol−1
Answer: B. mol L−1
7. Before calculating molarity, 450 mL should be converted into:
A. kg
B. g
C. L
D. mol
Answer: C. L
8. One mole of NaOH has a mass of:
A. 20 g
B. 30 g
C. 40 g
D. 80 g
Answer: C. 40 g
9. The atomic mass of sodium is approximately:
A. 12
B. 23
C. 35.5
D. 40
Answer: B. 23
10. The molecular mass contribution of oxygen in NaOH is:
A. 1
B. 16
C. 23
D. 40
Answer: B. 16
11. The mass contribution of hydrogen in NaOH is:
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 23
Answer: A. 1
12. If the volume of a solution increases while moles remain constant, molarity:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Becomes zero immediately
D. Remains necessarily constant
Answer: B. Decreases
13. If the amount of solute increases while volume remains constant, molarity:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unchanged
D. Becomes zero
Answer: A. Increases
14. Which quantity is used in the numerator of the molarity formula?
A. Volume
B. Moles
C. Density
D. Temperature
Answer: B. Moles
15. Which quantity is used in the denominator of M = n/V?
A. Mass
B. Moles
C. Volume in litres
D. Molar mass
Answer: C. Volume in litres
16. 1 L is equal to:
A. 10 mL
B. 100 mL
C. 500 mL
D. 1000 mL
Answer: D. 1000 mL
17. If 0.125 mol NaOH is present in 0.450 L solution, its molarity is:
A. 0.0278 M
B. 0.278 M
C. 2.78 M
D. 27.8 M
Answer: B. 0.278 M
18. Molarity is based on the volume of:
A. Solvent only
B. Solution
C. Solute only
D. Container
Answer: B. Solution
19. The unit mol L−1 can also be written as:
A. M
B. m
C. N only
D. kg
Answer: A. M
20. A 1 M solution contains:
A. 1 mole solute per litre solution
B. 1 gram solute per litre
C. 1 mole solvent per litre
D. 1 kg solute per litre
Answer: A. 1 mole solute per litre solution
21. Which formula can directly calculate molarity from mass?
A. M = mass × molar mass / volume
B. M = mass / (molar mass × volume in L)
C. M = volume / mass
D. M = molar mass / mass
Answer: B. M = mass / (molar mass × volume in L)
22. The given solution contains 0.125 mol NaOH. This quantity represents:
A. Mass
B. Number of moles
C. Volume
D. Density
Answer: B. Number of moles
23. If the same 5 g NaOH were dissolved to make 1 L solution, the molarity would be:
A. 0.0125 M
B. 0.125 M
C. 1.25 M
D. 12.5 M
Answer: B. 0.125 M
24. If the same 5 g NaOH were dissolved to make 0.225 L solution, the molarity would be:
A. 0.278 M
B. 0.556 M
C. 1.11 M
D. 2.22 M
Answer: B. 0.556 M
25. Molarity changes with temperature mainly because:
A. Number of atoms changes
B. Volume of solution may change
C. Molar mass changes
D. Atomic number changes
Answer: B. Volume of solution may change
26. Which is NOT needed directly to calculate molarity from mass?
A. Mass of solute
B. Molar mass
C. Volume of solution
D. Atomic number of solvent
Answer: D. Atomic number of solvent
27. The molarity calculated for the given solution to three significant figures is:
A. 0.278 M
B. 0.28 M
C. 2.78 M
D. 27.8 M
Answer: A. 0.278 M
28. In a dilution process, if moles remain constant and volume increases, concentration:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Becomes infinite
D. Always remains unchanged
Answer: B. Decreases
29. The value 0.278 M means approximately:
A. 0.278 mol NaOH per litre solution
B. 0.278 g NaOH per litre
C. 2.78 mol NaOH per litre
D. 278 mol NaOH per litre
Answer: A. 0.278 mol NaOH per litre solution
30. The correct final answer for the given problem is:
A. 0.0278 M
B. 0.278 M
C. 2.78 M
D. 27.8 M
Answer: B. 0.278 M
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