CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Bank –1 100 MCQ – 2026-27

CBSE CLASS X SOCIAL SCIENCE

Question Bank – 100 High-Level MCQs | Session 2026–27

Subject: Social ScienceType: MCQ / Assertion–ReasonTotal Questions: 100Difficulty: High-Level / Competency Based

Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option. Questions are designed for conceptual clarity, application, analysis and CBSE-style competency practice.

History — Question Bank

Q1. The French Revolution transferred sovereignty from the monarchy to the nation. Which principle was central to this change?

(A) Popular sovereignty(B) Divine right of kings(C) Feudal privilege(D) Absolute monarchy

Q2. Which development most directly encouraged economic unity among the German states before political unification?

(A) Zollverein(B) Treaty of Versailles(C) Congress of Vienna(D) Holy Alliance

Q3. Which symbol was commonly used to represent the German nation during the nineteenth-century nationalist movement?

(A) Germania(B) Marianne(C) Bharat Mata(D) Liberty Bell

Q4. What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?

(A) Restore conservative order in Europe(B) Create democratic republics everywhere(C) End all monarchies(D) Promote universal suffrage

Q5. Which ideology strongly supported individual freedom and equality before law?

(A) Liberalism(B) Conservatism(C) Absolutism(D) Feudalism

Q6. Who played the leading role in the unification of Italy through diplomacy and statecraft?

(A) Cavour(B) Garibaldi(C) Mazzini(D) Metternich

Q7. Which event is associated with the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement in India?

(A) Dandi March(B) Champaran Satyagraha(C) Khilafat Movement(D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

Q8. Why was salt chosen as a symbol of protest by Gandhiji?

(A) It was an essential commodity affected by colonial taxation(B) It was consumed only by rich people(C) It was mainly exported to Europe(D) It had no connection with daily life

Q9. Which event led Gandhiji to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(A) Chauri Chaura incident(B) Jallianwala Bagh incident(C) Simon Commission(D) Dandi March

Q10. Which group was especially affected by the decline in agricultural prices during the Great Depression?

(A) Peasants(B) Colonial officials(C) European aristocrats(D) Urban judges

Q11. Which factor helped transform the world economy in the nineteenth century?

(A) Steamships and railways(B) Decline of transport(C) End of international trade(D) Closure of ports

Q12. Indentured labour was commonly described by workers as a system resembling what?

(A) A new system of slavery(B) Free citizenship(C) Democratic employment(D) Permanent land ownership

Q13. Which technology greatly increased the speed of printing during the Industrial Revolution?

(A) Power-driven printing press(B) Spinning Jenny(C) Steam plough(D) Telegraph only

Q14. Why did industrialists use advertisements and attractive packaging?

(A) To create demand and distinguish products(B) To reduce consumer choice(C) To stop competition(D) To end mass production

Q15. Which invention improved textile production by allowing multiple spindles to operate simultaneously?

(A) Spinning Jenny(B) Steam engine(C) Flying shuttle(D) Telegraph

Q16. Which development helped create a wider reading public in the nineteenth century?

(A) Cheaper printed books(B) Decline of literacy(C) Ban on newspapers(D) Closure of printing presses

Q17. How did print culture support social reform in India?

(A) It spread reformist ideas and public debate(B) It prevented discussion(C) It eliminated vernacular languages(D) It restricted reading to rulers

Q18. Why did colonial governments attempt to control newspapers?

(A) Newspapers could influence public opinion(B) Newspapers were used only for entertainment(C) They reduced political awareness(D) They had no political influence

Q19. Which movement brought the issue of indigo cultivators' exploitation into national attention?

(A) Indigo revolt(B) Swadeshi Movement(C) Quit India Movement(D) Khilafat Movement

Q20. Which idea best explains nationalism as an imagined community?

(A) People develop a shared sense of belonging to a nation(B) Only rulers define national identity(C) Nations exist without common identity(D) Nationalism rejects all cultural symbols

Q21. Assertion: The Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians. Reason: It allowed detention without trial in certain circumstances.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q22. Assertion: Print culture encouraged debate. Reason: Printed texts could circulate ideas among larger groups.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q23. Which group formed a significant part of the nationalist leadership in Europe?

(A) Educated middle class(B) Only feudal peasants(C) Only monarchs(D) Only soldiers

Q24. Why did Indian merchants initially support the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(A) They wanted protection from colonial economic policies(B) They wanted unrestricted British imports(C) They opposed Indian industries(D) They wanted to abolish trade

Q25. Which factor contributed to the growth of nationalism in India?

(A) Shared anti-colonial struggle(B) Expansion of colonial privileges(C) Decline of political awareness(D) Complete regional isolation

Geography — Question Bank

Q26. Which type of resource is available in a region but has not yet been fully utilised?

(A) Potential resource(B) Developed resource(C) Stock(D) Reserve

Q27. Why is resource planning essential in India?

(A) Resources are unevenly distributed and need sustainable management(B) Resources are unlimited(C) All resources are equally available(D) Technology has no role

Q28. Which soil is especially suitable for cotton cultivation?

(A) Black soil(B) Laterite soil(C) Arid soil(D) Mountain soil

Q29. Which soil develops under high temperature and heavy rainfall with intense leaching?

(A) Laterite soil(B) Black soil(C) Alluvial soil(D) Arid soil

Q30. Which farming type combines crop cultivation with animal rearing?

(A) Mixed farming(B) Plantation farming(C) Primitive subsistence(D) Commercial grain farming

Q31. Which crop is mainly associated with black soil?

(A) Cotton(B) Tea(C) Jute(D) Rubber

Q32. Which crop is generally considered a kharif crop?

(A) Rice(B) Wheat(C) Gram(D) Mustard

Q33. Which crop requires a warm and wet climate and is widely grown in West Bengal and Assam?

(A) Tea(B) Wheat(C) Gram(D) Bajra

Q34. Which mineral is the basic raw material for the iron and steel industry?

(A) Iron ore(B) Mica(C) Bauxite(D) Limestone only

Q35. Bauxite is the principal ore of which metal?

(A) Aluminium(B) Iron(C) Copper(D) Manganese

Q36. Why are mineral-based industries often located near mining areas?

(A) Bulky raw materials increase transport costs(B) Markets are irrelevant(C) Minerals are perishable(D) Labour is absent elsewhere

Q37. Which industry is called a basic industry because it supplies materials to many other industries?

(A) Iron and steel(B) Tourism(C) Retail(D) Banking

Q38. Which source of energy is renewable?

(A) Solar energy(B) Coal(C) Petroleum(D) Natural gas

Q39. Which method helps conserve water in agricultural areas?

(A) Rainwater harvesting(B) Uncontrolled groundwater extraction(C) Flood irrigation everywhere(D) Deforestation

Q40. What is a major cause of land degradation?

(A) Deforestation(B) Afforestation(C) Contour ploughing(D) Terracing

Q41. Which transport mode is suitable for carrying bulky goods over long distances at low cost?

(A) Waterways(B) Airways(C) Personal cars(D) Helicopters

Q42. Which port is located on India's western coast?

(A) Kandla(B) Paradip(C) Haldia(D) Chennai

Q43. Which communication service has transformed the speed of information exchange?

(A) Internet(B) Bullock cart(C) Traditional barter(D) Manual postal copying

Q44. Which industry is agro-based?

(A) Cotton textile(B) Iron and steel(C) Cement(D) Aluminium

Q45. Which industry is mineral-based?

(A) Iron and steel(B) Sugar(C) Cotton textile(D) Jute

Q46. Assertion: Renewable energy is important for India. Reason: It reduces dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q47. Assertion: Manufacturing is important for economic development. Reason: It adds value to raw materials and creates employment.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q48. Which method reduces soil erosion on hill slopes?

(A) Terrace farming(B) Overgrazing(C) Deforestation(D) Strip mining

Q49. Which sector provides services such as transport, banking and communication?

(A) Tertiary sector(B) Primary sector(C) Agricultural sector only(D) Mining sector

Q50. Why is manufacturing important to agriculture?

(A) It provides machinery, inputs and processing facilities(B) It eliminates agricultural production(C) It reduces market access(D) It prevents irrigation

Political Science — Question Bank

Q51. Which form of power sharing is seen among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary?

(A) Horizontal power sharing(B) Vertical power sharing(C) Community government(D) Coalition only

Q52. Which arrangement represents vertical power sharing?

(A) Union, State and local governments(B) Legislature and Judiciary(C) Political parties only(D) Pressure groups only

Q53. What is the main prudential reason for power sharing?

(A) It reduces conflict and political instability(B) It concentrates power(C) It ends elections(D) It weakens minorities

Q54. What is the moral reason for power sharing?

(A) It is the spirit of democratic participation(B) It increases authoritarianism(C) It removes citizen rights(D) It ends representation

Q55. Which country adopted accommodation to manage linguistic diversity?

(A) Belgium(B) Sri Lanka(C) Nepal only(D) Myanmar

Q56. What was a major consequence of majoritarian policies in Sri Lanka?

(A) Alienation and conflict among communities(B) Complete social harmony(C) End of political conflict(D) Abolition of language differences

Q57. What is federalism?

(A) A system with constitutional division of powers among levels of government(B) A system with only one government(C) Rule by judges(D) Military rule

Q58. Which feature is essential to federalism?

(A) Constitutional division of powers(B) No state governments(C) No judiciary(D) No elections

Q59. Why were states reorganised largely on linguistic lines in India?

(A) To accommodate linguistic identities(B) To abolish regional identities(C) To weaken democracy(D) To end local government

Q60. What is decentralisation?

(A) Transfer of power to local levels(B) Concentration of power at the centre(C) Abolition of municipalities(D) Removal of elections

Q61. Which body represents rural local government at village level?

(A) Gram Panchayat(B) Lok Sabha(C) Rajya Sabha(D) Supreme Court

Q62. Which body represents urban local government?

(A) Municipality(B) Gram Sabha only(C) Zila Parishad only(D) Parliament

Q63. What is the main function of political parties?

(A) Contest elections and form governments(B) Conduct court trials(C) Prepare school textbooks only(D) Control the army

Q64. Which challenge refers to concentration of leadership within families?

(A) Dynastic succession(B) Federalism(C) Decentralisation(D) Power sharing

Q65. Which challenge refers to lack of meaningful internal elections within parties?

(A) Lack of internal democracy(B) Federalism(C) Coalition government(D) Decentralisation

Q66. What is a coalition government?

(A) Government formed by two or more parties sharing power(B) Government by judges(C) Government without elections(D) Government by one permanent ruler

Q67. Why are elections important in democracy?

(A) They enable citizens to choose representatives(B) They eliminate accountability(C) They prevent participation(D) They abolish political parties

Q68. Which reform can improve political party functioning?

(A) Regular internal elections(B) Concentration of all power in one leader(C) Secret unlimited funding(D) Family-only membership

Q69. Assertion: Federalism can strengthen national unity. Reason: It allows regional diversity to be accommodated within a common political system.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q70. Assertion: Political parties are necessary for representative democracy. Reason: They organise elections, aggregate interests and help form governments.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q71. Which institution conducts elections in India?

(A) Election Commission of India(B) Finance Commission(C) Planning Commission(D) NITI Aayog only

Q72. Which feature strengthens federalism?

(A) Independent judiciary to settle disputes(B) Abolition of state powers(C) Single-level government(D) No constitutional division

Q73. Why is local government important?

(A) Local problems can be addressed with local knowledge(B) It removes citizen participation(C) It eliminates accountability(D) It centralises decisions

Q74. Which democratic practice helps protect minority interests?

(A) Power sharing(B) Majoritarian domination(C) Political exclusion(D) Centralisation

Q75. Which political development strengthened regional parties in India?

(A) Coalition politics(B) End of state elections(C) Abolition of linguistic states(D) One-party rule everywhere

Economics — Question Bank

Q76. Which indicator is a non-income measure of development?

(A) Literacy rate(B) Per capita income only(C) Total exports only(D) Bank deposits only

Q77. Why is average income used to compare countries?

(A) It controls for differences in population size(B) All countries have equal population(C) It measures only health(D) It measures only education

Q78. Which public facility strongly influences quality of life?

(A) Healthcare(B) Luxury imports(C) Private cars only(D) Advertising

Q79. Which sector directly uses natural resources?

(A) Primary sector(B) Secondary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Information sector only

Q80. Which sector converts raw materials into finished goods?

(A) Secondary sector(B) Primary sector(C) Tertiary sector(D) Household sector only

Q81. Which activity belongs to the tertiary sector?

(A) Banking(B) Mining(C) Farming(D) Manufacturing

Q82. What is disguised unemployment?

(A) More workers engaged in an activity than actually required(B) No one works in an activity(C) Only seasonal employment(D) Employment in banks

Q83. Which sector has expanded significantly with growth in demand for services?

(A) Tertiary sector(B) Primary sector only(C) Subsistence sector(D) Mining only

Q84. What is collateral?

(A) An asset pledged as security for a loan(B) Interest earned on savings(C) A bank salary(D) A government tax

Q85. Which is a formal source of credit?

(A) Commercial bank(B) Moneylender(C) Trader(D) Relative

Q86. Why is formal credit generally preferred?

(A) It is regulated and usually follows established terms(B) It never requires repayment(C) It is always interest-free(D) It is available only to rich people

Q87. What can happen when borrowers depend heavily on informal credit?

(A) They may face high interest and debt traps(B) They always become richer(C) Loans become automatically subsidised(D) All risks disappear

Q88. What is globalisation?

(A) Greater integration of production and markets across countries(B) Complete closure of markets(C) End of international trade(D) Only local production

Q89. What has enabled globalisation significantly?

(A) Improved transport and communication technology(B) Decline of communication(C) Closure of ports(D) Reduction in information flow

Q90. What is an MNC?

(A) A company that owns or controls production in more than one country(B) A local shop only(C) A government school(D) A village cooperative only

Q91. Why do MNCs locate production in different countries?

(A) To access markets, skills, resources and lower production costs(B) To avoid all markets(C) To eliminate technology(D) To prevent investment

Q92. Which group may face intense competition due to globalisation?

(A) Small producers(B) Only foreign governments(C) Only consumers(D) Only banks

Q93. How can consumers benefit from globalisation?

(A) Greater variety and competitive prices(B) Fewer choices(C) Higher monopoly in every market(D) No access to technology

Q94. Which institution regulates the monetary system and supervises banks in India?

(A) Reserve Bank of India(B) Election Commission(C) Supreme Court(D) Gram Panchayat

Q95. Why do banks accept deposits?

(A) They use deposits as a major source for lending(B) To stop all lending(C) To eliminate savings(D) To prevent investment

Q96. Assertion: Development cannot be judged by income alone. Reason: Health, education and public facilities also affect well-being.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q97. Assertion: Formal credit can support economic development. Reason: It can provide loans for productive investment under regulated conditions.

(A) Both A and R are true and R explains A(B) Both true but R does not explain A(C) A true, R false(D) A false, R true

Q98. Which organisation is associated with global trade rules?

(A) World Trade Organization(B) Election Commission(C) Reserve Bank of India(D) Gram Panchayat

Q99. Why can globalisation create challenges for small producers?

(A) They may face competition from larger firms and MNCs(B) They receive automatic monopoly(C) Competition disappears(D) Markets become completely local

Q100. Which policy can make globalisation more inclusive?

(A) Skill development and support for small producers(B) Complete closure of markets(C) Removal of all infrastructure(D) Ban on technology

ANSWER KEY

Q1: (A)   Q2: (A)   Q3: (A)   Q4: (A)   Q5: (A)   Q6: (A)   Q7: (A)   Q8: (A)   Q9: (A)   Q10: (A)
Q11: (A)   Q12: (A)   Q13: (A)   Q14: (A)   Q15: (A)   Q16: (A)   Q17: (A)   Q18: (A)   Q19: (A)   Q20: (A)
Q21: (A)   Q22: (A)   Q23: (A)   Q24: (A)   Q25: (A)   Q26: (A)   Q27: (A)   Q28: (A)   Q29: (A)   Q30: (A)
Q31: (A)   Q32: (A)   Q33: (A)   Q34: (A)   Q35: (A)   Q36: (A)   Q37: (A)   Q38: (A)   Q39: (A)   Q40: (A)
Q41: (A)   Q42: (A)   Q43: (A)   Q44: (A)   Q45: (A)   Q46: (A)   Q47: (A)   Q48: (A)   Q49: (A)   Q50: (A)
Q51: (A)   Q52: (A)   Q53: (A)   Q54: (A)   Q55: (A)   Q56: (A)   Q57: (A)   Q58: (A)   Q59: (A)   Q60: (A)
Q61: (A)   Q62: (A)   Q63: (A)   Q64: (A)   Q65: (A)   Q66: (A)   Q67: (A)   Q68: (A)   Q69: (A)   Q70: (A)
Q71: (A)   Q72: (A)   Q73: (A)   Q74: (A)   Q75: (A)   Q76: (A)   Q77: (A)   Q78: (A)   Q79: (A)   Q80: (A)
Q81: (A)   Q82: (A)   Q83: (A)   Q84: (A)   Q85: (A)   Q86: (A)   Q87: (A)   Q88: (A)   Q89: (A)   Q90: (A)
Q91: (A)   Q92: (A)   Q93: (A)   Q94: (A)   Q95: (A)   Q96: (A)   Q97: (A)   Q98: (A)   Q99: (A)   Q100: (A)

CBSE Class X Social Science Question Bank | 100 MCQs | Session 2026–27 | High-Level / Competency-Based Practice

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 10 - 2026-27

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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. A student argues that the Treaty of Vienna attempted to restore the old conservative order in Europe. Which evidence best supports the argument? 1

(A) It promoted universal adult franchise.(B) It restored monarchies and attempted to reverse many changes associated with Napoleonic rule.(C) It created a united democratic Germany.(D) It abolished all aristocratic privileges.

Q2. Which development most directly transformed the Salt March from a symbolic act into a mass political challenge? 1

(A) It challenged a tax affecting an essential commodity and encouraged wider participation.(B) It was restricted only to industrialists.(C) It supported the colonial salt monopoly.(D) It demanded the expansion of British trade.

Q3. Which statement best explains why the Great Depression affected colonial India differently from industrial countries? 1

(A) India was closely integrated into global agricultural markets and depended heavily on commodity exports.(B) India had no agricultural production.(C) India was completely isolated from world markets.(D) Indian peasants received guaranteed prices from the colonial government.

Q4. A colonial government attempts to restrict a newspaper because it criticises its policies. What does this reveal about the political significance of print culture? 1

(A) Print had no role in political debate.(B) Print could influence public opinion and therefore became a subject of political control.(C) Newspapers were read only by government officials.(D) Print eliminated political disagreement.

Q5. Assertion (A): The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.
Reason (R): Gandhiji believed that the movement was becoming violent and that the principles of non-violence had to be preserved.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8

Q6. Explain how liberalism, conservatism and nationalism came into conflict during the political transformations of nineteenth-century Europe.3

Q7. Analyse why the participation of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement was important, yet their political roles remained limited in many formal decision-making spaces.3

Q8. Explain three ways in which industrialisation changed the lives and working conditions of workers in nineteenth-century Europe.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9

Q9. “Nationalism in India developed through a process of collective mobilisation, but different groups attached different meanings to freedom.” Analyse the statement with suitable examples.6

— OR —

Analyse the impact of print culture on the growth of public opinion and social reform in India.

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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. A region has abundant groundwater but faces falling water tables because extraction exceeds natural recharge. Which concept is most directly relevant? 1

(A) Sustainable use of resources(B) Mineral processing(C) Plantation agriculture(D) Industrial diversification

Q11. Which change would most likely make Indian agriculture more sustainable in a water-stressed region? 1

(A) Greater dependence on water-intensive crops(B) Efficient irrigation, crop diversification and water conservation(C) Continuous groundwater extraction(D) Removal of all traditional water systems

Q12. Why is bauxite an important mineral for modern industry? 1

(A) It is the principal ore of aluminium.(B) It is the principal ore of iron.(C) It is a fossil fuel.(D) It is a source of petroleum.

Q13. Which location factor becomes especially important for industries producing perishable goods? 1

(A) Proximity to raw materials and markets with efficient transport(B) Complete isolation from markets(C) Distance from all transport networks(D) Absence of communication facilities

Q14. Assertion (A): Road transport is especially useful for short-distance movement of goods and passengers.
Reason (R): Roads provide door-to-door connectivity and can link production centres with railways, ports and markets.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17

Q15. “Land degradation is both an environmental and an economic problem.” Explain the statement with three causes and their consequences.3

Q16. Analyse why the location of manufacturing industries depends on a combination of raw materials, labour, power, capital, transport and markets rather than on one factor alone.3

Q17. On the political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron and steel centre in Jharkhand, (b) a major software technology centre in Telangana, (c) a major multipurpose project on the Mahanadi, (d) a major seaport on the western coast.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18

Q18. “Energy resources determine both economic growth and environmental sustainability.” Analyse India's dependence on conventional sources and explain why renewable energy is increasingly important.6

— OR —

Analyse the importance of water conservation and rainwater harvesting for sustainable development in India.

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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. In a democracy, why is sharing power among different organs of government considered desirable? 1

(A) It prevents any one organ from exercising unlimited power.(B) It removes the need for laws.(C) It makes elections unnecessary.(D) It gives all powers to the executive.

Q20. Which situation best illustrates vertical power sharing? 1

(A) Power shared among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary(B) Power shared among Union, State and local governments(C) Power shared among political parties only(D) Power shared among pressure groups only

Q21. Which factor most strengthened the role of regional parties in Indian politics? 1

(A) Recognition of regional interests and the growth of coalition politics(B) Abolition of state governments(C) Complete disappearance of local issues(D) End of electoral competition

Q22. Which measure would most directly reduce the problem of money power in elections? 1

(A) Greater transparency in political funding and stricter enforcement of election rules(B) Removing election expenditure rules(C) Restricting voting rights(D) Allowing anonymous unlimited funding

Q23. Assertion (A): Belgium adopted accommodation to manage tensions among linguistic communities.
Reason (R): Power sharing can reduce the possibility that a majority community will permanently dominate minorities.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26

Q24. Explain why majoritarianism can create instability in a democracy. Use the Belgian and Sri Lankan experiences to support your answer.3

Q25. Explain three ways in which decentralisation can make democracy more responsive and accountable.3

Q26. Why do citizens need political parties even when parties themselves face criticism? Explain three essential functions.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27

Q27. Analyse how power sharing and federalism together help accommodate social and regional diversity in a democracy.6

— OR —

“Political parties are both a necessary condition for democracy and a source of democratic challenges.” Examine the statement and suggest reforms.

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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. A country records high average income but poor public healthcare and sanitation. Which conclusion is most appropriate? 1

(A) Income is the only measure of development.(B) Development must include public facilities and quality-of-life indicators.(C) Public facilities do not affect human well-being.(D) Average income automatically guarantees equal development.

Q29. A farmer hires a tractor service and pays a transport company to carry produce to market. Which sectors are represented by these services? 1

(A) Only primary sector(B) Tertiary sector(C) Only secondary sector(D) Only manufacturing sector

Q30. Why is formal credit important for economic development? 1

(A) It is generally regulated and can provide credit at relatively reasonable terms.(B) It always requires no repayment.(C) It eliminates all economic risk.(D) It is available only to large corporations.

Q31. An MNC shifts part of its production to India because of skilled labour, lower costs and access to markets. What does this illustrate? 1

(A) Globalisation of production(B) Complete economic isolation(C) Barter system(D) Decline of international investment

Q32. Assertion (A): Globalisation has increased competition among producers in India.
Reason (R): Liberalisation has enabled greater interaction with international markets and foreign producers.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35

Q33. Explain why sustainability should be considered while comparing development options for different countries and communities.3

Q34. Analyse how the terms of credit can influence whether borrowing improves or worsens the economic condition of a borrower.3

Q35. Explain three ways in which globalisation has affected Indian consumers and one major challenge it creates for small producers.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36

Q36. Analyse the relationship among employment, productivity and the three sectors of the Indian economy. Explain why creating productive employment is more important than merely increasing the number of jobs.6

— OR —

Critically examine the role of MNCs in globalisation. Discuss both the opportunities they create and the risks they may pose for local producers.

--- End of Question Paper --- All the Best! ---

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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint

1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint

Part	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3	Total
A — History	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
B — Geography	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
C — Political Science	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
D — Economics	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
Total	20	36	24	80

2. Chapter Coverage

Subject	Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
History	The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography	Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political Science	Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
Economics	Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy

3. Question Typology & Competency Focus

Question Type	Total Questions	Total Marks	Primary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason	20	20	Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer	12	36	Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer	4	24	Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total	36	80	Mixed competency-based assessment

4. Difficulty & Competency Design

Level	Indicative Weightage	Focus
Basic	Approx. 30%	Definitions, identification, core facts
Moderate	Approx. 45%	Application, explanation, comparison
Advanced	Approx. 25%	Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning

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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 10

PART A — HISTORY

Q1. (B)

Q2. (A)

Q3. (A)

Q4. (B)

Q5. (A)

Q6. Liberalism supported constitutional government and individual rights; conservatism defended traditional monarchical authority; nationalism challenged dynastic rule by seeking nation-based political unity. Their competing objectives shaped nineteenth-century Europe.

Q7. Women organised demonstrations, boycotted foreign cloth and liquor shops and participated in political mobilisation. However, social norms and gender expectations limited their access to leadership and formal political decision-making.

Q8. Industrialisation created factory employment but often involved long working hours, low wages, unsafe conditions, child labour and overcrowded urban settlements. Workers gradually developed associations and demands for reforms.

Q9. Different groups joined the national movement with distinct objectives: peasants sought revenue relief, business groups wanted favourable economic policies, workers and women participated in mobilisation, while some groups had local grievances. Nationalism created a common political platform without eliminating social differences. OR: Print expanded public debate, spread reformist ideas, connected readers and enabled criticism of social and political authority.

PART B — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. (A)

Q11. (B)

Q12. (A)

Q13. (A)

Q14. (A)

Q15. Causes include deforestation, overgrazing, mining, over-irrigation and industrial waste. Consequences include soil erosion, declining fertility, reduced agricultural productivity and ecological imbalance.

Q16. Industries choose locations by balancing several factors. Raw materials and power affect costs, labour provides skills, capital enables investment, transport connects inputs and markets, and markets determine demand. Modern industries often optimise several factors simultaneously.

Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples: an appropriate Jharkhand iron and steel centre, Hyderabad (Telangana), Hirakud (Odisha), and an appropriate western-coast seaport.

Q18. Conventional energy sources support industry and transport but are exhaustible and can cause pollution. Renewable sources such as solar, wind and biomass diversify the energy mix, reduce environmental pressure and strengthen long-term energy security. OR: Water conservation and rainwater harvesting recharge groundwater, reduce dependence on over-extraction, support irrigation and urban supply, and improve resilience to variable rainfall.

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. (A)

Q20. (B)

Q21. (A)

Q22. (A)

Q23. (A)

Q24. Majoritarianism can marginalise minorities and create distrust and conflict. Belgium reduced tensions through accommodation and power sharing, while Sri Lanka's majoritarian policies generated alienation and prolonged conflict.

Q25. Local governments identify local needs, encourage direct participation and improve accountability. They also enable decisions to reflect local knowledge and can bring governance closer to citizens.

Q26. Parties contest elections, aggregate interests, form governments, shape public policy and provide political choices to citizens. These functions make representative democracy workable.

Q27. Power sharing protects minority interests and prevents concentration of authority; federalism distributes powers territorially and accommodates regional diversity. Together, they create institutional mechanisms for participation, negotiation and peaceful conflict management. OR: Parties are essential for elections and representation but face internal democracy, dynastic succession, money power and transparency challenges. Reforms should strengthen internal elections, financial disclosure, participation and accountability.

PART D — ECONOMICS

Q28. (B)

Q29. (B)

Q30. (A)

Q31. (A)

Q32. (A)

Q33. Development choices affect future generations and the environment. Sustainable options conserve resources, reduce pollution and ensure that present improvements do not undermine future well-being.

Q34. Interest rates, collateral, repayment period and other conditions determine the burden of a loan. Reasonable terms can support productive investment, while high interest and harsh conditions can lead to debt traps.

Q35. Consumers have greater variety, improved quality, competitive prices and access to new products. Small producers may face stronger competition from MNCs and imports, requiring technology, skills and market support.

Q36. The primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are interdependent. Productivity growth and structural change can shift employment toward higher-value activities. Productive employment matters because jobs should generate adequate income, output and sustainable livelihoods rather than merely increase the number of workers employed. OR: MNCs bring investment, technology, employment and market links, but can intensify competition and pressure small producers. The impact depends on policy, skills, infrastructure and support for domestic enterprises.

Sample Paper 10 — High-Level / HOTS / Competency-Based | CBSE Class X Social Science | Session 2026–27

Answer Key | Sample Paper 10 | www.careerinformationportal.in

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 9 - 2026-27

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CBSE Sample Practice Paper — 7  (Session 2026–27)

Class: X (10th)

Subject: Social Science — Code: 087

Time: 3 Hours

Max. Marks: 80

Student Name: ______________________

Roll No.: __________

Section: __________

General Instructions:

1. This question paper is divided into four parts: Part A — History, Part B — Geography, Part C — Political Science and Part D — Economics. Each part carries 20 marks.

2. Each part contains Section 1 — Very Short Answer/Objective including Assertion–Reason, Section 2 — Short Answer and Section 3 — Long Answer with internal choice.

3. Answer Short Answer questions in about 60–80 words and Long Answer questions in about 120–150 words.

4. Read each question carefully. Attempt all questions. Marks are indicated against each question.

5. For map-based questions, use a political outline map of India and label locations clearly.

PART A — HISTORY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q1 to Q5

Q1. A historian argues that the Zollverein helped create a sense of economic unity before political unification in Germany. Which evidence best supports this argument? 1

(A) It abolished all monarchies in Europe.(B) It removed tariff barriers among many German states and promoted a common market.(C) It introduced universal adult franchise throughout Europe.(D) It ended industrialisation in German states.

Q2. Why did Gandhiji choose salt as a symbol during the Civil Disobedience Movement? 1

(A) Salt was consumed only by wealthy groups.(B) The salt tax affected ordinary people and symbolised colonial economic control.(C) Salt production was controlled by Indian princes only.(D) Salt had no connection with everyday life.

Q3. Which situation most clearly demonstrates the connection between industrialisation and global trade in the nineteenth century? 1

(A) Production becoming entirely local(B) Factories depending on raw materials, labour and markets spread across regions and countries(C) Complete disappearance of overseas trade(D) Decline of transport technology

Q4. A reformer uses newspapers and pamphlets to challenge an established social practice. What feature of print culture does this example illustrate? 1

(A) Print could circulate new ideas and generate public debate.(B) Print prevented all social reform.(C) Print was restricted only to royal courts.(D) Print reduced communication between readers.

Q5. Assertion (A): The Simon Commission faced protests in India.
Reason (R): It did not include any Indian member despite being appointed to examine constitutional reforms in India.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q6 to Q8

Q6. “Nationalism did not emerge only through political events; culture also played a decisive role.” Analyse the statement with three examples from Europe.3

Q7. Examine three reasons why the participation of different social groups in the Non-Cooperation Movement was not identical.3

Q8. Explain how the First World War transformed the economic and social conditions in India and contributed to the growth of anti-colonial sentiment.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q9

Q9. “The making of a global world involved both opportunities and inequalities.” Analyse this statement with reference to trade, migration, technology and colonialism.6

— OR —

Analyse the role of print culture in shaping religious debates, social reform and political consciousness in India.

--- Continued on next page ---

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PART B — GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q10 to Q14

Q10. A district has fertile land but suffers from severe soil erosion because vegetation has been removed from slopes. Which approach is most appropriate? 1

(A) Increase deforestation(B) Adopt soil conservation and afforestation measures(C) Intensify mining on slopes(D) Replace all crops with cash crops

Q11. Which farming system is most likely where farmers combine crop cultivation with animal rearing to reduce dependence on a single activity? 1

(A) Mixed farming(B) Plantation farming(C) Primitive subsistence farming(D) Commercial grain farming

Q12. Why are many mineral-based industries located close to mineral-producing areas? 1

(A) Minerals are weightless.(B) Transporting bulky raw materials over long distances can raise production costs.(C) Markets never influence industrial location.(D) Skilled labour is absent in cities.

Q13. Which transport system is most suitable for carrying large quantities of bulky goods over long distances at relatively low cost? 1

(A) Airways(B) Waterways(C) Helicopters(D) Personal vehicles

Q14. Assertion (A): Renewable energy sources are increasingly important for India's energy security.
Reason (R): They can reduce dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels and help diversify the energy mix.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q15 to Q17

Q15. Explain why resource availability alone does not guarantee development. Discuss three conditions required for effective resource planning.3

Q16. Analyse three environmental problems caused by intensive modern agriculture and suggest one suitable corrective measure for each.3

Q17. On the political outline map of India, locate and label any three: (a) a major iron and steel plant in Odisha, (b) a major cotton textile centre in Gujarat, (c) a multipurpose river valley project in the north, (d) an international airport in southern India.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q18

Q18. “Manufacturing industries are essential for economic development, but industrialisation must be environmentally responsible.” Analyse the economic importance of manufacturing and explain measures to reduce industrial pollution.6

— OR —

Analyse the importance of transport and communication networks in integrating different regions of India and promoting international trade.

--- Continued on next page ---

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PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q19 to Q23

Q19. A government creates institutions in which different communities receive representation and participate in decision-making. Which democratic principle is illustrated? 1

(A) Majoritarianism(B) Power sharing(C) Political centralisation(D) Judicial supremacy

Q20. Which feature most clearly distinguishes a federal system from a unitary system? 1

(A) Only one level of government exists.(B) Constitutional division of powers exists between different levels of government.(C) Local governments have no functions.(D) The judiciary has no constitutional role.

Q21. If no single party obtains a majority and several parties agree to govern together, which development is most likely? 1

(A) Coalition government(B) Military rule(C) One-party dictatorship(D) Direct democracy

Q22. Which reform would most directly strengthen internal democracy in a political party? 1

(A) Concentrating all decisions in one leader(B) Holding regular organisational elections and transparent decision-making(C) Restricting membership to one family(D) Avoiding public disclosure of finances

Q23. Assertion (A): Decentralisation can improve the quality of democratic participation.
Reason (R): Local institutions can address community-level problems with greater knowledge of local conditions.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q24 to Q26

Q24. Compare the prudential and moral reasons for power sharing. Why should a democracy consider both?3

Q25. Explain how the linguistic reorganisation of states and the rise of regional parties contributed to the strengthening of Indian federalism.3

Q26. “Political parties are necessary for democracy, but their functioning can weaken democratic quality.” Explain with three arguments.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q27

Q27. Analyse the factors that have made federalism successful in India. In your answer, distinguish between constitutional design and political practice.6

— OR —

Analyse the major challenges faced by political parties in India and evaluate measures that can improve their functioning.

--- Continued on next page ---

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PART D — ECONOMICS (20 Marks)

Section 1 — Very Short Answer (MCQ/Assertion–Reason) (1 Mark each) — Q28 to Q32

Q28. Two states have similar per capita incomes, but one has much better literacy and health outcomes. What does this comparison suggest? 1

(A) Income alone is sufficient to measure development.(B) Development is multidimensional and includes non-income indicators.(C) Literacy has no relation to development.(D) Health indicators cannot be compared.

Q29. A farmer sells wheat to a flour mill, which converts it into flour. Which sector is represented by the flour mill? 1

(A) Primary(B) Secondary(C) Tertiary(D) Informal only

Q30. Why do banks generally require collateral from borrowers for certain loans? 1

(A) To eliminate interest payments(B) To reduce the lender's risk if the borrower fails to repay(C) To prevent all borrowing(D) To increase the borrower's income automatically

Q31. An Indian company outsources a part of its production to a firm abroad to reduce costs and access specialised skills. Which process does this illustrate? 1

(A) Globalisation of production(B) Localisation of production(C) Barter exchange(D) Subsistence production

Q32. Assertion (A): Formal credit is generally considered safer than informal credit.
Reason (R): Formal lenders are supervised by institutions and operate under established rules and regulations.1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is true, but R is false.(D) A is false, but R is true.

Section 2 — Short Answer (3 Marks each) — Q33 to Q35

Q33. Why can a rise in average income fail to improve the quality of life for all sections of society? Explain with three points.3

Q34. Analyse the importance of affordable formal credit for small farmers and small producers. Explain three benefits.3

Q35. Explain three ways in which globalisation has changed the choices available to consumers in India, while also identifying one possible disadvantage.3

Section 3 — Long Answer (6 Marks) — Q36

Q36. “The organised and unorganised sectors contribute differently to employment and worker protection.” Compare them on the basis of working conditions, job security, benefits and regulation. Suggest measures for improving the condition of unorganised workers.6

— OR —

“Globalisation creates both opportunities and challenges for Indian producers.” Critically evaluate this statement with reference to MNCs, investment, technology, competition and small producers.

--- End of Question Paper --- All the Best! ---

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Design of Question Paper — Blueprint

1. Subject-wise & Section-wise Blueprint

Part	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3	Total
A — History	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
B — Geography	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
C — Political Science	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
D — Economics	5 × 1 = 5	3 × 3 = 9	1 × 6 = 6	20
Total	20	36	24	80

2. Chapter Coverage

Subject	Major Competency/Chapter Areas Covered
History	The Rise of Nationalism in Europe; Nationalism in India; The Making of a Global World; The Age of Industrialisation; Print Culture and the Modern World
Geography	Resources and Development; Water Resources; Agriculture; Minerals and Energy Resources; Manufacturing Industries
Political Science	Power Sharing; Federalism; Political Parties; Challenges to Democracy; Democracy and Accountability
Economics	Development; Sectors of the Indian Economy; Money and Credit; Globalisation and the Indian Economy

3. Question Typology & Competency Focus

Question Type	Total Questions	Total Marks	Primary Skill
Objective / Assertion–Reason	20	20	Recall, interpretation, conceptual clarity
Short Answer	12	36	Explanation, comparison, analysis
Long Answer	4	24	Critical thinking, evaluation, synthesis
Total	36	80	Mixed competency-based assessment

4. Difficulty & Competency Design

Level	Indicative Weightage	Focus
Basic	Approx. 30%	Definitions, identification, core facts
Moderate	Approx. 45%	Application, explanation, comparison
Advanced	Approx. 25%	Analysis, evaluation, critical reasoning

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Answer Key & Marking Scheme — Sample Paper 9

PART A — HISTORY

Q1. (B)

Q2. (B)

Q3. (B)

Q4. (A)

Q5. (A)

Q6. Nationalism developed through language, folklore, music, poetry, symbols and allegories. Romantic artists and writers created shared cultural identities, while historical memories and vernacular traditions helped people imagine a common nation.

Q7. Different groups had different economic and political expectations: peasants wanted relief from revenue demands, business groups sought protection and favourable policies, and students, workers and women participated for broader anti-colonial objectives. Hence participation was broad but not uniform.

Q8. War expenditure increased taxes and prices; forced recruitment affected villages; food shortages and epidemics created hardship; and economic distress weakened faith in colonial rule.

Q9. Global integration expanded trade, migration and capital flows and was accelerated by railways, steamships and communication. However, colonialism produced unequal trade relations, exploitation and forced integration of economies. Thus globalisation created opportunities alongside major inequalities. OR: Print widened access to ideas, enabled religious and social debates, supported reform movements and helped create political consciousness.

PART B — GEOGRAPHY

Q10. (B)

Q11. (A)

Q12. (B)

Q13. (B)

Q14. (A)

Q15. Resource planning requires identification and inventory, appropriate technology/institutional arrangements, and matching resource development with national development objectives. Resources become useful only when knowledge, technology, investment and planning are available.

Q16. Intensive agriculture may cause groundwater depletion, soil degradation and chemical pollution. Measures include efficient irrigation, balanced fertiliser use, crop diversification, organic inputs and soil conservation.

Q17. Any three correctly located and labelled examples as asked, with appropriate map accuracy.

Q18. Manufacturing adds value, creates employment, reduces dependence on primary activities and supports trade. Pollution can be reduced through cleaner technologies, treatment of industrial effluents, recycling, energy efficiency, stricter monitoring and proper waste management. OR: Transport and communication connect production with markets, reduce regional isolation, support movement of people and goods, enable information flows and strengthen domestic and international trade.

PART C — POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q19. (B)

Q20. (B)

Q21. (A)

Q22. (B)

Q23. (A)

Q24. Prudential reasons reduce conflict and instability; moral reasons recognise participation and equality as democratic values. A durable democracy requires both practical stability and democratic legitimacy.

Q25. Linguistic reorganisation accommodated regional identities within the Union. Regional parties brought state-level interests into national politics, while coalition politics encouraged consultation and negotiation between levels of government.

Q26. Parties are necessary to organise elections, form governments and represent interests, but lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money power and limited transparency can weaken democratic functioning.

Q27. Constitutional division of powers, independent institutions, linguistic accommodation, decentralisation, regional parties and coalition politics have all contributed to federal success. Constitutional design provides the framework, while political practice makes accommodation work. OR: Challenges include lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, money and muscle power and limited transparency. Reforms include organisational elections, greater disclosure, internal consultation and stronger enforcement of democratic norms.

PART D — ECONOMICS

Q28. (B)

Q29. (B)

Q30. (B)

Q31. (A)

Q32. (A)

Q33. Average income can hide inequality; some groups may lack healthcare, education or sanitation; and environmental quality and security may differ. Therefore development must be assessed through multiple indicators.

Q34. Affordable formal credit reduces dependence on moneylenders, supports investment in seeds, machinery or working capital, and can improve income-generating capacity. It also provides clearer terms and regulatory protection.

Q35. Consumers get greater variety, improved quality, competitive prices and access to new technologies. However, small local producers may face stronger competition and some jobs or traditional producers may be adversely affected.

Q36. Organised-sector workers generally receive greater job security, regulated working hours and social security benefits, while unorganised workers often face irregular employment, lower protection and limited benefits. Measures include enforcement of labour protections, social security coverage, skill development and easier access to formal employment and credit. OR: MNCs bring investment, technology and market access, but can intensify competition and pressure small producers. Outcomes depend on skills, infrastructure, policy support and the ability of domestic producers to adapt.

This sample paper is designed for CBSE Class X Social Science practice, Session 2026–27, with higher-order and competency-based questions.

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