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MP Police Constable Quiz | एमपी पुलिस कांस्टेबल क्विज - 50 MCQs

MP Police Constable Quiz | एमपी पुलिस कांस्टेबल क्विज - 50 MCQs

MP Police Constable Quiz | एमपी पुलिस कांस्टेबल क्विज - 50 MCQs

Ready to test your knowledge for MP Police Constable exam? This quiz covers GK, Reasoning, Maths, Science based on full syllabus. Take the quiz and check your score!
एमपी पुलिस कांस्टेबल परीक्षा के लिए अपनी जानकारी का परीक्षण करने के लिए तैयार हैं? यह क्विज GK, Reasoning, Maths, Science को कवर करता है। क्विज लें और अपना स्कोर जांचें!

1. Who among the following leaders was associated with Azad Hind Fauz as its founder?

Answer: D
Explanation: Azad Hind Fauj existed under Captain Mohan Singh and Subhash Chandra Bose in two different persons. Subhash Chandra Bose took control of the Indian Independence League, which ultimately became known as the Indian National Army or the Azad Hind Fauj.

2. In which of the following years Queen Victoria assumed the title of Kaiser-i-Hind (the Empress of India)?

Answer: C
Explanation: On January 1, 1877, at Coronation Park in Delhi, British monarch Queen Victoria assumed a new title: Kaiser-e Hind, Empress of India.

3. Who built the Moti Masjid in Red Fort at Delhi?

Answer: A
Explanation: Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) was built by Aurangzeb in 1659-60. Moti Masjid is located at the Red Fort Complex in New Delhi.

4. The river Sutlej, on which the Bakra Dam has been built, originates from

Answer: C
Explanation: The river Sutlej, on which the Bhakra Dam has been built, originates from Rakas lake in Tibet. Sutlej River is the longest of the five rivers that flow through the historic crossroads region of Punjab.

5. The President of India is

Answer: A
Explanation: The President of India is the head of the State. The President is the first citizen of India. Article 52 states that the President is the head of the state.

6. Who is the first woman Indian Police Services officer?

Answer: A
Explanation: Kiran Bedi is an Indian politician and retired police officer. She is the first woman Indian Police Services officer. She became an officer in the Indian Police Service in 1972.

7. In which year did India sign Kyoto Protocol?

Answer: D
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in December 1997 and entered into force in February 2005. India signed the Kyoto Protocol on 26 August 2002.

8. Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the Constitution of India?

Answer: A
Explanation: This provision for Population control and family planning was added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976. It was added under the Entry 20-A in List III (Concurrent List).

9. Name the religious movement started by Emperor Akbar in the late 16th century

Answer: C
Explanation: Din-i Ilahi “the religion of God,” was a system of religious beliefs introduced by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 CE. His idea was to combine Islam and Hinduism into one faith.

10. National animal of India is___.

Answer: B
Explanation: Royal Bengal Tiger is the National Animal of India. The scientific name of this animal is Panthera Tigris. It was conferred the status in April 1973.

11. Who founded Santiniketan

Answer: B
Explanation: Santiniketan was built in the early 1860s by Maharshi Devendranath Tagore. On 22nd December 1901, Rabindranath Tagore established his school at Santiniketan.

12. On which river is the Hirakud Dam built?

Answer: B
Explanation: Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, close to Sambalpur city in Odisha in India. It is the longest major earthen dam in India.

13. Who is the author of the book, 'Ghulam Giri'?

Answer: C
Explanation: The book, 'Ghulam Giri' was written by Jyotiba Phule. Jyotirao Phule thanked Christian missionaries and the British colonists for making the lower castes realize that they are worthy of all human rights.

14. What is the capital of Madhya Pradesh?

Answer: B
Explanation: Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh.

15. What is the official language of Madhya Pradesh?

Answer: B
Explanation: Hindi is the official language of Madhya Pradesh.

16. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. GWR : HZW :: CJO : ?

Answer: B
Explanation: Here, we use the table given below: Alphabet Dia. Given: GWR : HZW. Similarly, for CJO : ? Here, 'CJO' is written as 'DMT'. Hence, the correct answer is "DMT".

17. What is my father’s wife’s father-in-law's only son to me?

Answer: A
Explanation: By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree. Here, my father's wife's (i.e. my mother's) father-in-law's (i.e. my grandfather's) only son is my 'Father'.

18. In the given question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the correct answer. Statements: U > H = G ≥ N; E < N > W ≥ O Conclusion: I. G > E II. H > N

Answer: B
Explanation: Statements: U > H = G ≥ N; E < N > W ≥ O. Conclusion: I. G > E → True. II. H > N → False. Hence, Option (2) is correct.

19. In the sequence shown below, which figure comes next?

Answer: B
Explanation: The pattern followed here is shown below: At first Mirror image of a number i.e. 3 is written then after its successor i.e. 4 is written in normal form then again Mirror image of its successor i.e. 5 is written and after this the successor of 5 i.e. 6 is written in normal form. So the next that will come will be successor of 6 in its Mirror image form that would be Mirror image of 7.

20. Select the option that is true about the Statements and Conclusions given: Statements: Some pastes are creams Lime is a paste Conclusions: I. Some creams are pastes II. Some creams are not pastes

Answer: C
Explanation: The Venn Diagram for the given data. Conclusions: I. Some creams are pastes → true. II. Some creams are not pastes → false(It is possible but not definite). Hence, only conclusion I is true.

21. Complete the series choosing the missing letter b _ abbc _ bbca _ bcabb _ ab

Answer: C
Explanation: The correct sequence for the following series is: b c ab/bc a b/bca b/ bcab/b c ab. Hence, the missing letters which would complete the series are ' cabc'.

22. In the following question, there is certain relationship between the first two terms. Choose the fourth term from the following options which has a similar kind of relation with the third term. Mother : Daughter :: Father : ?

Answer: A
Explanation: The logic is: Mother : Daughter → Mother is the same gender as the parent/guardian of her daughter. Similarly, Father : ? → Father is the same gender as the parent/guardian of his son. Hence, ‘Son’ is the correct answer.

23. Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting on the ground in a hexagonal shape. All the sides of the hexagon so formed are of same length. A is not adjacent to B or C ;D is not adjacent to C or E;B and C are adjacent;F is the immediate neighbour of D and C. Who is placed opposite to E?

Answer: D
Explanation: Six people - A, B, C, D, E and F. B and C are adjacent; F is the immediate neighbour of D and C. From both the cases we can see that F is placed opposite to E. Hence, F is the correct answer.

24. In a certain code language KIRAN is coded as LJSBO then in that language SRIKANT is coded as:

Answer: A
Explanation: The pattern followed here is : Similarly, Hence, the code for the word SRIKANT is TSJLBOU.

25. Select the option that is true about the Statements and Conclusions given: Statements: All roses are flowers All lilies are flowers Conclusions: I. All roses are lilies II. All lilies are roses

Answer: D
Explanation: The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows: conclusions: I. All roses are lilies → False (It is possible but not definite). II. All lilies are roses → False (It is possible but not definite). Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

26. Find the compound interest on Rs. 18300 for 9 months at 16% per annum compounded quarterly.

Answer: C
Explanation: Principal = Rs. 18300, Time = 9 months = 3 quarters, Rate = 16% per annum = 4% per quarter. CI = P {(1 + R/100)^3 - 1} = Rs. 2285.0112.

27. Ages of two persons differ by 16 years. If 6 year ago, the elder one be 3 times as old the younger one, find their present age?

Answer: D
Explanation: Difference between two person ages = 16 years. Let the age of younger person be A, age of elder person = (A + 16). 3(A - 6) = (A + 16 - 6) ⇒ A = 14. Younger age is 14 years, elder age is 30 years.

28. Amit is now 20 years old and Leela is 4 years old. In how many years will Amit be twice as old as Leela?

Answer: B
Explanation: Let after 'y' years Amit will be twice as old as Leela. 20 + y = 2 × (4 + y) ⇒ y = 12. After 12 years Amit will be twice as old as Leela.

29. Which of the following has fractions in ascending order?

Answer: D
Explanation: In decimal form: 5/16 = 0.3125, 6/17 = 0.3529, 7/18 = 0.3888. Clearly, 0.3125 < 0.3529 < 0.3888, so 5/16 < 6/17 < 7/18.

30. Ram bought an iPhone for Rs.75,000, Mac book for Rs.95,000, iPad for Rs.30,000 and sold all the items to Shyam at an average price of Rs.70,000. How much Profit did Ram made out of the deal?

Answer: C
Explanation: Total Cost Price = 75,000 + 95,000 + 30,000 = Rs. 200000. Average sell price = 70,000, Total Sell Price = 70,000 × 3 = 210000. Profit = 210000 - 200000 = 10,000 Rs.

31. If three observations are 80 , 82, and 70, and the fourth one is twice the fifth observation, and its average is given as 95, then the two observations are:

Answer: D
Explanation: Average of 5 observations is 95, so Sum = 95 × 5 = 475. Let fifth observation be x, fourth be 2x. Sum = 80 + 82 + 70 + x + 2x = 232 + 3x. 475 = 232 + 3x ⇒ x = 81, 2x = 162.

32. The average of 6 results is 8. The average of first 2 is 7.5. What is the average of the remaining four?

Answer: B
Explanation: Total value of 6 results = 8 × 6 = 48. Total value of first 2 = 7.5 × 2 = 15. Total value of remaining four = 48 - 15 = 33. Average = 33/4 = 8.25.

33. A dealer is selling an article with a marked price of Rs. 1400 at a discount of 5% on the marked price. Find the selling price of the article?

Answer: B
Explanation: SP = MP(1 - D/100) = 1400(1 - 5/100) = 1400 × 19/20 = Rs.1330.

34. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and policeman run at the rate of 10 km/hr and 11 km/hr respectively. At what distance will the policeman catches the thief?

Answer: B
Explanation: Relative speed = 11 - 10 = 1 km/hr. Convert 200m to km: 0.2 km. Time = 0.2 / 1 = 0.2 hours. Distance covered = speed × time = 11 × 0.2 = 2.2 km.

35. A man walks to a place at the rate of 4 kmph, and comes back on a bicycle at 16 kmph. the average speed for the entire journey is?

Answer: B
Explanation: Average speed = 2ab/(a + b) = 2 × 4 × 16 / 20 = 128 / 20 = 6.4 km/h.

36. Which of the following is a non-binary compound?

Answer: A
Explanation: Nitric acid is a non-binary compound with the formula HNO3. Non-binary compounds are those made up of either the same elements such as O2, H2, etc or more than two different elements such as NH4Cl, H3PO4, etc.

37. Which of the following reproduces through binary fission?

Answer: A
Explanation: Amoeba reproduces through binary fission. Amoeba is a unicellular organism, and just like bacteria. It reproduces through binary fission.

38. Which of the following device is used to test whether an object is carrying charge or not?

Answer: C
Explanation: Electroscope is used to test whether an object is carrying charge or not. Electroscope, instrument for detecting the presence of an electric charge or of ionizing radiation.

39. Black lung disease is common amongst people working in -

Answer: A
Explanation: Black lung disease is common among people working in Coal mines. Coal workers' pneumoconiosis (CWP), commonly known as "black lung disease," occurs when coal dust is inhaled.

40. The speed of light in vacuum is:

Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 3 × 10^8 m / s. Light is a form of energy that makes us see. The speed of light in a vacuum or the air is 3 x 10^8 m / s.

41. Lymph is_______.

Answer: B
Explanation: Lymph is blood without RBC. Lymph is a pale fluid that bathes the tissues of an organism, maintaining fluid balance, and removes bacteria from tissues.

42. The distance between stars and the Earth is measured in______.

Answer: B
Explanation: The distance between stars and the Earth is measured in a light-year. A light-year is a distance that the light travels in one year.

43. When the distance covered by an object is directly proportional to time, it is said to travel with __________ .

Answer: B
Explanation: We know that Distance Travelled by an object = Speed x Time. Here, it is given that the distance travelled is directly proportional to time, hence the speed of the object must be constant.

44. Self Pollination refers to the ____.

Answer: B
Explanation: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination. When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower are transferred to the stigma of the same flower, it is called self-pollination.

45. Pure water can be made to conduct electricity by dissolving ____.

Answer: C
Explanation: Pure water can be made to conduct electricity using Common Salt. Salt molecules contain sodium ions and chloride ions. Ionic compounds conduct electricity because they contain charged particles called ions.

46. After completing the gold foil experiment, Rutherford concluded that the size of the nucleus is very small compared to the size of the atom. This is because:

Answer: A
Explanation: Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected. Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.

47. One cannot stop food after swallowing because of the:

Answer: A
Explanation: One cannot stop food after swallowing because of the Involuntary nature of intestine. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscle which is present in the stomach, intestine & bladder.

48. In a box type solar cooker, the part which is responsible for producing greenhouse effect is:

Answer: A
Explanation: In a solar cooker, the glass sheet helps to keep the temperature inside the cooker warm. The glass sheet prevents the thermal radiation of the sunlight from going out of the box, causing a greenhouse effect.

49. Refraction of light is responsible for:

Answer: B
Explanation: The twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of star-light. The refraction of light caused by the earth's atmosphere having air layers of varying optical density is called atmospheric refraction.

50. If the area of a square is 256 m 2 , find the perimeter of this square.

Answer: C
Explanation: Area = a^2 = 256 ⇒ a = √256 = 16 m. Perimeter = 4a = 4 × 16 = 64 m.

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All India Exams - Admit Cards October 2025

All India Competitive Exams - Admit Cards Released in October 2025

(For Exams Scheduled Up to 30 October 2025)

Exam Name Admit Card Release Date Exam Date Conducting Body Download Link
SSC CGL Tier 1 Re-Test (for affected candidates) 9 October 2025 14 October 2025 Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Download Admit Card (Regional Websites)
NIOS Class 10 & 12 (October-November Session) 8 October 2025 14 October 2025 to 18 November 2025 (up to 30 Oct relevant) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) Download Admit Card (Use Enrollment No.)
UPTET 2025 (Uttar Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test) Expected mid-October 2025 15-16 October 2025 Uttar Pradesh Basic Education Board (UPBEB) Official Site (Admit card link soon)
MPESB PSTST 2025 (Primary School Teacher) 9 October 2025 Starting 9 October 2025 (multi-day, up to 30 Oct shifts) Madhya Pradesh Employees Selection Board (MPESB) Download Admit Card

Important Notes

  • SSC CGL Re-Test: For 55,000+ candidates affected by technical issues. Total vacancies: 14,582.
  • NIOS Exams: Theory exams start 14 October. Download admit card using Enrollment Number. Confirm fee payment.
  • UPTET: For Primary/Upper Primary teacher eligibility. Notification recently released.
  • MPESB PSTST: Primary teacher selection, 18,650 vacancies. Exam in two shifts (10:30 AM-12:30 PM & 3:00 PM-5:00 PM).
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For further details, visit the respective official websites or contact their helplines.

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Government Jobs October-November 2025 (Central & All States) - Official Links

Government Job Openings: Central & All States (Oct 26 - Nov 30, 2025)

Only Govt Jobs | Total Vacancies: 75,000+ | Central (All India) + State-Specific

Job Title Organization/Type State/Scope Vacancies Qualification Last Date Official Apply/Notification Link
Research Fellow & Manager National Judicial Academy (Central) All India (Bhopal) 4 PG/PhD October 27, 2025 Apply Now PDF
Technical Assistant & Junior Assistant NIT Jalandhar (Punjab State) Punjab 58 Diploma/Graduate October 27, 2025 Apply Now PDF
Prohibition Constable, Jail Warder & Mobile Squad Bihar Police (State) Bihar 4,128 12th Pass October 25, 2025 Apply Now PDF
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BPSC 71st Prelims BPSC (Bihar State) Bihar 1,000+ Graduate November 5, 2025 Apply Now PDF
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HPSC HCS Prelims HPSC (Haryana State) Haryana 200+ Graduate November 12, 2025 Apply Now PDF
PPSC Lecturer PPSC (Punjab State) Punjab 300+ PG November 25, 2025 Apply Now PDF
Bihar Teacher TRE 4.0 Bihar Education (State) Bihar 1,00,000+ Graduate/B.Ed November 30, 2025 Apply Now PDF

Upcoming Major Govt Exams/Jobs in October-November 2025 (Central & States)

Key exams/notifications expected; prepare now!

Exam/Job Organization/Type Scope Vacancies (Est.) Key Date Official Link
SSC MTS SSC (Central) All India 10,000+ November 2025 Check
IBPS Clerk Prelims IBPS (Central) All India 6,000+ November 2025 Check
RRB Group D RRB (Central) All India 30,000+ November 2025 Check
BPSC Mains BPSC (Bihar State) Bihar 800+ November 2025 Check
MPSC State Services MPSC (Maharashtra State) Maharashtra 500+ November 2025 Check
KPSC Gazetted Probationers KPSC (Karnataka State) Karnataka 300+ November 2025 Check
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Last Date: To be announced (Notification in September 2025)

Syllabus: CBT 1: Maths, Reasoning, GK; CBT 2: Technical Subject. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Railway RRC NCR Apprentice Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 1763

Eligibility: 10th + ITI; Age 15-24 years

Last Date: 17 October 2025

Syllabus: Merit-based; No exam. Focus on ITI marks.

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IBPS RRB 14th Online Form 2025 – (13217 Posts)

Vacancies: 13217

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 18-28/40 years (post-wise)

Last Date: 21 September 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: Reasoning, Quant; Mains: English, GK, Computer. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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DSSSB Primary Teacher PRT Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 1180

Eligibility: 12th + B.El.Ed/D.El.Ed; Age up to 30 years

Last Date: 16 October 2025

Syllabus: General Awareness, Reasoning, Hindi, English, Maths, EVS. Qualifying: 40% General.

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BPSC APS & WMO Online Form 2025

Vacancies: 60

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 21-42 years

Last Date: 30 September 2025

Syllabus: General Studies, Sanitation/Waste Management. Qualifying: 30% language.

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UPPSC APO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 182

Eligibility: LLB; Age 21-40 years

Last Date: 16 October 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: GK, Law; Mains: Constitution, IPC, CrPC. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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MPESB Police Constable Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 7500

Eligibility: 12th Pass; Age 18-33 years

Last Date: 29 September 2025

Syllabus: GK, Reasoning, Maths, Hindi, Science. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Bihar BSSC Office Attendant Online Form 2025 (3727 Posts) – Start

Vacancies: 3727

Eligibility: 10th Pass; Age 18-37 years

Last Date: 24 September 2025

Syllabus: Written: GK, Maths, Reasoning. Qualifying: 30% UR.

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RRB Section Controller Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 368

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 20-33 years

Last Date: 14 October 2025

Syllabus: CBT: Reasoning, Maths, GK. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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Bihar BSSC 4th Graduate Level Online Form 2025 (1481 Posts) – Start

Vacancies: 1481

Eligibility: Graduation; Age 21-37 years

Last Date: 24 September 2025

Syllabus: Prelims: GK, Reasoning; Mains: Hindi, English, Subject. Qualifying: 30% UR.

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RRVUNL Technician III, Operator & Plant Attendant Online Form 2025 – Re-Open

Vacancies: 2163

Eligibility: ITI; Age 18-28 years

Last Date: 25 September 2025

Syllabus: Written: Technical, GK, Reasoning. Qualifying: 40% UR.

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BPSC District Sports Officer DSO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 33

Eligibility: Graduation + Sports Degree; Age 21-42 years

Last Date: 26 September 2025

Syllabus: GK, Sports Science, Hindi. Qualifying: 30% language.

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BPSC HOD Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 218

Eligibility: PhD/Master's + Experience; Age 33+ years

Last Date: 30 September 2025

Syllabus: Subject-specific, Teaching Aptitude. Interview-based.

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Army AFMS MO Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: 225

Eligibility: MBBS; Age up to 30/35 years

Last Date: 03 October 2025

Syllabus: NEET PG-based shortlisting; Interview: Medical Knowledge.

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IOCL Junior Engineer/ Officer Online Form 2025 – Start

Vacancies: Not specified

Eligibility: Diploma; Age 18-26 years

Last Date: 28 September 2025

Syllabus: CBT: Domain (50%), Aptitude (50%). Qualifying: 45% UR.

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